Q. The acceleration of body due to the constant velocity is : Answer: Zero (Note: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. If velocity is constant, there is no change, so acceleration is zero).
Q. The reciprocal of the resistivity of a material is called its? Answer: Conductivity
Q. If the length of the conductor is made 4 times its original length, its resistance becomes? Answer: 4 times (Note: Resistance R is directly proportional to length L assuming cross-sectional area remains independent).
Q. A loop moves toward a stationary magnet. The induced current will? Answer: Try to stop the approach (Note: According to Lenz’s Law, the induced current creates a magnetic field that opposes the motion causing it).
Q. Terminal voltage of a cell equals its EMF only when? Answer: No current flows (Note: V=E−Ir. When I=0, V=E).
Q. Mechanical waves cannot travel through outer space because they? Answer: Lose transmission without interacting particles (Note: Mechanical waves strictly require a material medium to propagate).
Q. The wave that has the highest frequency & penetrating power is? Answer: Gamma rays
Q. First Law of thermodynamics gives a relationship between Answer: Heat, work, and energy (Note: Specifically, it relates added heat, work done, and change in internal energy).
Q. The energy of a Simple Harmonic oscillation depends upon the Answer: Amplitude (Note: Total energy E=½kA², which depends on the square of the amplitude).
Q. The protons in the nucleus of an atom DO NOT exist due to? Answer: Electromagnetic Force (Note: The electromagnetic force causes them to repel each other; they stay together because of the Strong Nuclear Force).
Q. If the surface charge density of an infinite sheet increases by 25%, the electric field intensity? Answer: Increases by 25% (Note: Electric field E=σ/2ε₀ is directly proportional to surface charge density σ).
Q. If an incompressible fluid flows through a pipe that becomes narrower in one section, the fluid speed increases in that region to maintain? Answer: Constant mass flow rate (Note: This satisfies the Equation of Continuity).
Q. The curved shape of an airplane wing causes air to move faster over the top surface. This leads to? Answer: Lower pressure on the top (Note: This is explained by Bernoulli’s Principle, which creates upward lift).
Q. In a pipe of varying cross-section as fluid enters the narrower region, it exhibits? Answer: High velocity low pressure
Q. The time in which half of the given number of radioactive nuclei decay is known as? Answer: ½ life of radioactive element
Q. The Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum appears in the? Answer: Visible region
Q. If a ball is thrown into the air with certain velocity v making an angle θ with horizontal. If air resistance is neglected, then at maximum height its velocity is? Answer: Minimum but not zero (Note: At maximum height, the vertical component is zero, but the horizontal component vcosθ remains active).
Q. A canon is placed on a smooth surface. When it fires a shell, the canon moves backward, this recoil occurs due to? Answer: Newton’s third law of motion (Note: It is also a direct application of the conservation of linear momentum).
Q. Earth receives large amount of energy directly from? Answer: Sun
Q. A phase difference of 90° is equal to? Answer: π/2 radians
Q. An angular displacement of 90° is equal to: Answer: One-fourth revolution
Q. In an ideal transformer, if the primary voltage is doubled and the turns ratio remains the same, what happens to the secondary current? Answer: Halves (Note: Doubling primary voltage doubles secondary voltage. Since power is constant, doubling voltage halves the current).
Q. If P is the momentum of an object and m is its mass, then its kinetic energy is? Answer: ½P²/m (Note: KE=P²/2m).
Q. The electric field at a point due to two equal and opposite charges is 100 N/C. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled then the electric field at that point becomes? Answer: 200 N/C (Note: Electric field is directly proportional to the magnitude of the source charges).
Q. If a plastic sheet of relative permittivity 2.5 is inserted between two-point charges placed in vacuum, then the electrostatic force between them? Answer: Decreases by a factor of 2.5 (Note: Fmed=Fvac/εr).
Q. If the horizontal range of a projectile becomes half of its maximum possible horizontal range, the probable angle of projection is? Answer: 15° (Note: Maximum range occurs at 45° where Rmax=v²/g. Since R=Rmaxsin(2θ), we set sin(2θ)=0.5, giving 2θ=30°→θ=15°).
Q. After 3 half-lives, the remaining fraction of a radioactive sample is? Answer: 1/8 (Note: (½)³=⅛).
Q. If a body having mass m₁ (2 kg) moving with 5 m/s approaches another mass, m₂ (3 kg) with speed of 1 m/s in same direction, relative speed of approach is 4 m/s. Relative speed of separation after collision will be? Answer: 4 m/s (Note: In a perfectly elastic collision, the relative speed of approach equals the relative speed of separation).
Q. If the distance between two charges is halved and magnitude of charges are also doubled, then the force between these charges becomes? Answer: Sixteen times (Note: Coulomb’s Law F∝q₁q₂/r². Doubling both charges gives a factor of 4; halving the distance gives another factor of 4. 4×4=16).
Q. A projectile is launched in air with certain angle; its velocity is maximum at? Answer: Point of projection (Note: It matches maximum speed at launch and just before impact).
Q. For two equal positive charges, the electric field weakest is? Answer: Midway between them (Note: The opposing field vectors cancel out perfectly at the midpoint).
Q. A fluid is flowing through a tube, to undergo transition from laminar to turbulent flow its velocity must be? Answer: Greater than critical velocity
Q. A 0.5 kg ball moving at 6 m/s has kinetic energy? Answer: 9 J (Note: KE=½mv²=½(0.5)(6)²=9 J).
Q. If two speakers emit sound at same frequency and phase, maximum loudness occurs when? Answer: Path difference = λ (Note: Constructive interference happens at integer multiples of the wavelength).
Q. The work done by the gravitational force on an object as it moves from a reference level to a higher point is? Answer: Always negative (Note: Force of gravity points downward while displacement is upward).
Q. The unit of temperature coefficient of resistivity is? Answer: 1/K (or 1/°C).
Q. A proton and an alpha particle enter in the same magnitude with equal speeds, compared to proton, the alpha particle’s path will have ______? Answer: Larger radius (Note: r=mv/qB. The alpha particle has 4 times the mass and 2 times the charge of a proton, meaning its radius is 2r).
Q. If A = (ai + bj) and B = 4(ai + bj), magnitude of A × B = _____? Answer: 0 (Note: The vectors are parallel, so their cross product is zero).
Q. A body moving in a circle, half revolution in terms of radians is equivalent to _____? Answer: π
Q. In laminar flow of fluid, its adjacent layers ______? Answer: Slide smoothly pass each other
Q. The motion of transverse waves involves particle’s vibration _____? Answer: Perpendicular to wave propagation
Q. If 2J of work is done in moving two coulombs of charge from one point to the other in an electric field. The potential difference between the points is ______? Answer: 1 J/C (Note: V=W/q=2J/2C=1J/C).
Q. During the drilling of a metal surface the drill bit heats up. This heat comes from the _____? Answer: Work done against friction
Q. The angle formed at the center of a circle as a body moves from one position to another is ______? Answer: Angular displacement
Q. Internal resistance reduces the terminal voltage because it ______? Answer: Causes power loss inside the battery
Q. The electric field at a point due to a point charge is 200N/C. If suppose a -4C test charge is placed at that point then the magnitude of electric field and electric force on it is ______? Answer: 200N/C and 800N (Note: Field strength remains independent of the test charge magnitude; Force=qE=4×200=800N).
Q. The increase in kinetic energy associated with decreased pressure of a fluid in a horizontal pipe is a consequence of the _____? Answer: Bernoulli’s Principle
Q. A point lies 3m from a +5μC charge and 4m from a -3μC charge. The most appropriate direction of the net electric field at this point is directed _____? Answer: None of these (Note: It vectorially aims away from the positive charge and toward the negative charge, aligning along neither purely).
Q. A ball of mass m strikes a wall and rebounds with the same speed in the opposite direction, taking the initial direction as positive, the change in the momentum of the ball is _____? Answer: -2mv (Note: Δp=pf−pi=−mv−mv=−2mv).
Q. A body is projected with speed v making an angle θ with the horizontal and covers horizontal range R. If its speed is doubled, the new range will be _____? Answer: 4R (Note: R∝v², so doubling v increases R by 2²=4).
Q. A body moves along a semicircular path of radius 10 m from one end of the diameter to the other. The ratio of distance to displacement is ______? Answer: π:2 (Note: Distance=πr, Displacement=2r. Ratio=πr/2r=π:2).
Q. The force between two charges is 28 N in vacuum. If paraffin wax of relative permittivity 2.8 is introduced between the charges as a medium, then the force reduces to ___? Answer: 10 N (Note: Fmed=Fvac/εr=28/2.8=10N).
Q. If frequency of AC is doubled, the inductive reactance will ______? Answer: Be doubled (Note: XL=2πfL, directly proportional to f).
Q. A gas expands from 1 m³ to 3 m³ at constant pressure of 2 Pa. Work done is _____? Answer: 4 J (Note: W=PΔV=2×(3−1)=4J).
Q. The phenomenon of interference of sound waves requires ______? Answer: Two coherent sources
Q. A 150 kg car has its speed reduced from 20 m/s to 10 m/s in 3.0 seconds. How large was the average braking force? Answer: 500 N (Note: a=(10−20)/3=−3.33m/s². F=ma=150×3.33=500N).
Q. A displacement-time graph is a straight line inclined up at angle of 45° angle with the X-axis. The velocity of the body according to this graph is _____? Answer: Constant (Note: A straight inclined line represents uniform/constant velocity).
Q. Consider these two vectors A = 2i + 3j and B = -6i + 4j. The angle between these two vectors is _____? Answer: 90° (Note: Dot product=(2)(−6)+(3)(4)=−12+12=0, indicating perpendicular vectors).
Q. The point where the electric field is zero between two opposite charges lies ______? Answer: Nowhere between them (Note: For opposite charges, field lines reinforce each other in the space between).
Q. Newton’s original formula underestimated speed of sound in air because he _____? Answer: Assumed isothermal
Q. When a droplet reaches terminal velocity, its acceleration is ______? Answer: Zero
Q. In a step-up transformer, if the secondary voltage is increased by a factor of 10, the current in secondary coil will be _____? Answer: One-tenth of the primary current in transformer
Q. When force and displacement are in opposite directions, the work done is said to be _____? Answer: Negative
Q. In circular motion, if angular displacement is kept constant, decreasing the radius will ______? Answer: Decrease the linear displacement (Note: S=rθ, so a smaller r results in a smaller S).
Q. A constant force F acts on a body and moves it a distance Δd in a time Δt. The rate at which the force is doing work is _____? Answer: F × Δd/Δt (Note: Power=Work/Time=FΔd/Δt).
Q. A diver of mass m is swimming at a depth h below the sea level. If the reference level is taken at sea level, the gravitational potential energy of the diver is _____? Answer: -mgh
Q. Potential energy decreases in the process of ______? Answer: Releasing a stretched spring
Q. The path difference between two sound waves coming from a coherent source, with a wavelength 50 cm, at a point is 100 cm. The superposition of the waves at that point will produce _____? Answer: Loudness (Note: Path difference 100cm=2λ, resulting in constructive interference or maximum loudness).
Q. The value of the temperature coefficient of a conductor is zero. This means that with a rise in temperature, the resistance of the conductor _____? Answer: Remains the same
Q. A body of mass 10 kg is falling through a viscous liquid and has reached its terminal velocity. The net force on the body will be _____? Answer: 0 N
Q. The magnetic flux through a loop of area 1 m² in a 0.5 T magnetic field is the same as the magnetic flux through a loop of area 0.5 m² in a magnetic field of ______? Answer: 1.0 T at 0° (Note: Φ=BAcosθ).
Q. An electron is moving along the positive x-axis in a magnetic field that is in the xz-plane. The magnetic force on the electron will be along the ____? Answer: y-axis (Note: Using F=q(v×B), it points along either the positive or negative y-axis depending on the vector component).
Chemistry
Q. If % yield and actual yield is 80 and 20g respectively, what will be theoretical yield? Answer: 25g (Note: Theoretical Yield=Actual Yield/% Yield ×100=20/80×100=25g).
Q. Number of unpaired electrons present in the ground state of Fe³⁺ are (Atomic number of Fe = 26): Answer: Five (Note: Neutral Fe is [Ar]3d⁶4s². Removing 3 electrons gives Fe³⁺ as [Ar]3d⁵, leaving 5 unpaired electrons).
Q. If 100 kJ of heat is absorbed by the system and 40 kJ of work is done on the system what is the change of internal energy? Answer: +140 kJ (Note: According to the first law, ΔU=q+w=100kJ+40kJ=140kJ).
Q. Which of the following situations most clearly demonstrates a key characteristic of a Redox reaction? Answer: Hydrogen gas reacting with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas
Q. A chemical reaction has a theoretical yield of 25 g, but only 20g of product was obtained. What is percentage yield of the reaction? Answer: 80% (Note: 20/25×100=80%).
Q. Consider the equation H₂+O₂→H₂O, what volume of hydrogen gas is required to produce 1 mol of water at standard temperature and pressure? Answer: 22.4 dm³ (Note: The balanced reaction is 2H₂+O₂→2H₂O. 1 mole of H₂O requires 1 mole of H₂ gas, which occupies 22.4dm³ at STP).
Q. Correct arrangement of orbital according to size of hybridized orbitals: Answer: sp³ > sp² > sp (Note: Higher s-character pulls the orbital closer to the nucleus, making sp the smallest).
Q. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of benzene? Answer: High reactivity
Q. What is general requirement for free radical substitution reaction of ethane and halogen? Answer: Heat and UV light
Q. What happens when H⁺ is added to ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride buffer? Answer: Reaction will move forward (Note: Added H⁺ ions react with OH⁻ to form water, pulling the ammonium hydroxide dissociation forward).
Q. Which of the following is basic buffer? Answer: NH₄OH/NH₄Cl
Q. Which of the following is true about pressure for an ideal gas at −273°C? Answer: P = 0 atm (Note: −273°C is Absolute Zero (0K), where molecular motion and pressure drop to zero).
Q. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is the type of? Answer: Thermoplastic polymer
Q. The order of ease of reduction of H⁺, Cu²⁺ and Ag⁺? Answer: Ag⁺ > Cu²⁺ > H⁺ (Note: Standard reduction potential follows Ag⁺(+0.80V)>Cu²⁺(+0.34V)>H⁺(0.00V)).
Q. Shape of orbital is determined by quantum number? Answer: l (Note: The azimuthal/subsidiary quantum number l dictates orbital shape).
Q. Final equation for the representation of rate of reaction in terms of concentration is called? Answer: Rate law
Q. Fischer ESTERIFICATION is which type of reaction? Answer: Condensation
Q. Terminal alkynes show acidic character due to? Answer: Terminal carbon atoms are sp hybridized
Q. Which one of the following has higher vapour pressure? Answer: Acetaldehyde (Note: It has the lowest boiling point and weakest intermolecular forces among the options).
Q. Acetaldehyde undergoes oxidation to produce acetic acid, in this reaction oxidizing agent used is? Answer: K₂Cr₂O₇
Q. Conversion of dihaloalkane into alkyne does not involve? Answer: Addition (Note: It is a dehydrohalogenation process, which is an elimination reaction).
Q. Molecules having one lone pair and three bond pairs have geometrical shape ? Answer: Trigonal pyramidal (e.g., NH₃).
Q. Majority of reactions taking place at ordinary temperatures with -ΔH are ? Answer: Exothermic
Q. Which one of the following is a coinage metal? Answer: Cu
Q. Oxidation numbers of X, Y, Z are +6, -2, & -1 respectively, possible molecular formula when atoms combine? Answer: XYZ₄ (Note: For a neutral molecule, the sum of oxidation numbers must equal 0. In XYZ₄: +6 + (-2) + 4(-1)=0).
Q. Which set of quantum numbers is not allowed for an electron. Answer: n=2, l=2, m=1, s=+1/2 (Note: The azimuthal quantum number l must always be strictly less than the principal quantum number n. For n=2, the maximum value of l is 1).
Q. For a reaction 2A + 3B → C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate? Answer: -d[B]/dt (Note: The rate expression must account for stoichiometric coefficients. For reactant B, it should be -(1/3)d[B]/dt).
Q. Amount of energy needed to weaken the existing bonds to an extent that can be broken through collision is called? Answer: Activation energy
Q. Consider the given balanced chemical equation: 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(g) If 4 g of H₂ reacts with 32 g of O₂ to produce 28 g of H₂O, what is the percentage yield of the reaction? Answer: 77.8% (Note: Percentage Yield=28/36×100≈77.8%).
Q. An enzyme used to decompose the lipids into fatty acids in our alimentary canal is? Answer: Lipase
Q. A chemical reaction has a theoretical yield of 25 g, but only 20 g of product was obtained. What is the percentage yield of the reaction? Answer: 80%
Q. Which of the following best explains why phenol reacts with aqueous NaOH, but alcohols do not? Answer: Phenol is weakly acidic due to resonance stabilization of the phenoxide ion
Q. Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to form ammonium salts, which on heating produces? Answer: Amide
Q. The value of gas constant R in ergs mol⁻¹K⁻¹ is _____? Answer: 8.314 × 10⁷
Q. The element with smallest value of ionization energy is? Answer: Ba
Q. In a unit cell of a crystal lattice the angle β is between faces? Answer: c and a
Q. Chlorination of benzene in the presence of iron (III) chloride involves mechanism of? Answer: Electrophilic Substitution
Q. Number of unpaired electrons in Boron in ground state is/are? Answer: 1
Q. IUPAC name of (CH₃)₃CCH₂Br is? Answer: 1-bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane
Q. Methanol is produced by reduction of? Answer: Formaldehyde
Q. Which of the following best identifies the redox reaction? Answer: Transfer of electron
Q. Which carbonyl carbon is more electrophilic? Answer: HCHO (Note: Lacks electron-donating alkyl groups, maximizing the partial positive charge on carbon).
Q. 50g of Mg is burned with 32g of oxygen to form MgO. The amount of excess reagent left is? Answer: 2g Mg
Q. Which equation is used to find the concentration for n moles of an ideal gas? Answer: None of these (Note: Concentration C=n/V=P/RT).
Q. When the pressure is 1520 torr, the density of oxygen gas will be _____? Answer: 64/RT
Q. The number of sigma bonds in methyl chloride due to sp³-s overlap is/are _____? Answer: 3
Q. K is called the specific rate constant because it is ______? Answer: Rate per unit concentration
Q. Formic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of an acid catalyst and produces _____? Answer: Ester
Q. Which one is not a type of stereoisomerism? Answer: Metamerism
Q. Which of the following is NOT a state function? Answer: Work
Q. Select the standard condition for temperature and pressure? Answer: 14.7 psi and 0°C
Q. The mass of hydrogen gas needed to produce 51 g ammonia ______? Answer: 9 g
Q. Which compound will not show geometrical isomerism? Answer: Pent-1-ene
Q. If ionization energy of an element is greater then _____? Answer: Less is it’s metallic character
Q. All of following have two bond pairs and show linear geometry except? Answer: SnCl₂
Q. The ionic compound among the following with the highest lattice energy is _____? Answer: LiF
Q. When SHE is connected with Cu electrode using salt bridge and external wire _____? Answer: Cu²⁺ reduces
Q. Consider the given reaction: N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃ If 56 g of N₂ reacts with 12 g of H₂ and produces 51 g of NH₃, what is the theoretical yield (TY) of NH₃ and the percentage yield (PY) of the reaction? Answer: TY = 68 g and PY = 75%
Q. During Clemmenson reduction of aldehyde and ketone, carbonyl group into alkane group is carried out with ____? Answer: Zn/Hg conc.HCl
Q. Which is not true about benzene? Answer: No elimination reaction
Q. At start of reaction _____? Answer: Instantaneous rate is high
Q. When one mole of a substance is decomposed preferably as compared to evaporation then decomposition has _____? Answer: Low energy
Q. Which one is addition polymer? Answer: Polyvinyl chloride
Q. Ratio of sigma bonds and pi bonds present in benzene are _____? Answer: 4:1
Q. Which of following adhesive is used to bond broken pieces of jewelry? Answer: Epoxy resin
Q. Which atom has at least single electron in dumbbell shape orbital? Answer: B
Q. The IUPAC name of Vinyl acetylene is _____? Answer: But-1-en-3-yne
Q. The maximum probability of finding an electron is at a distance of _____? Answer: 0.053 nm
Q. The formation of activated complex in a reaction is _____? Answer: Endothermic process
Q. Which of the following is expected to be the most paramagnetic? Answer: ⁶C
Q. Among the following compound, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon is? Answer: CH₃COCl
Q. The order of reactivity of following R-X for SN² reaction is ______? Answer: RI>RBr>RCl>RF
Q. IUPAC name of CHCCl is _____? Answer: Chloroethyne
Q. What is 50% yield when actual yield and theoretical yield are 2 g and 4 g respectively? Answer: 50%
Q. Which reagent and condition are used to bring about the reaction shown? Toluene → p-chloro toluene Answer: Cl₂ in the presence of AlCl₃
Q. Phenol differs from ethanol because it ______? Answer: Is more acidic because of resonance stabilized conjugate base
Q. Value of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively, the percent ionic character will be ______? Answer: 73%
Q. Which of the following molecules have similar molecular shape? Answer: H₂O & SnCl₂
Q. IUPAC name of the compound C₂H₅CH=C(C₂H₇)C₂H₅ is _____? Answer: 3-ethylhept-3-ene
Q. IUPAC name of the compound CH₃(CH₂)₄CH(CH₃)₂ is ____? Answer: 2-methylheptane
Q. Which of the following is least volatile? Answer: Glycerol
Q. Correct order of bond energy will be: Answer: HCl>HBr>HI
Q. For which reaction, the value of Kc increases with increase in temperature? Answer: H₂ + I₂ → 2HI
Q. Rate of dehydration of alcohol is ______? Answer: 3°>2°>1°
Q. The heat of formation of CO and CO₂ are -26.4 Kcal and -94.0 Kcal respectively. The heat of combustion of carbon monoxide according to Hess’s Law will be ____? Answer: -67.6Kcal
Biology
Q. In a normal 28 days menstrual cycle when would you expect the LH surge to occur? Answer: Days 11-14
Q. In which of the following combination, both components have Hyaline cartilage? Answer: Nose & trachea
Q. Which is an enzyme activator secreted by the intestinal glands: Answer: Enterokinase
Q. Reversible inhibitors differ from irreversible inhibitors because they? Answer: Bind temporarily and can be removed
Q. Enzyme activity decreases at very low or high pH because? Answer: Enzymes become denatured
Q. Hippocampus plays an important role in the? Answer: Formation of long-term memory
Q. Which of the following is the auditory relay centre and centre that controls reflex movement of eyes? Answer: Midbrain
Q. Once an action potential reaches the membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber, what is the first event that prepare it for contraction process? Answer: Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q. Which of the following is the correct pathway of nerve impulse? Answer: Receptors → CNS → Effectors
Q. All are the functions of the lysosome EXCEPT: Answer: Lipid synthesis
Q. Total number of linkage groups in a normal human is Answer: 23
Q. Nissle granule is a specialized structure in a neuron formed by the modification of Answer: Ribosome & Rough ER
Q. What is the primary outcome of crossing over during prophase of meiosis I? Answer: Homologous chromosomes exchange different pairs leading to recombinant chromatids and increased genetic variation
Q. In di-hybrid cross, the ratio in F₂ generation is _____? Answer: 9:3:3:1
Q. Which part of the brain contains central chemoreceptors that monitor CO₂ levels in blood? Answer: Medulla oblongata
Q. Which part of brain controls transition between sleeping and wakefulness? Answer: Pons
Q. Which component of a reflex arc connects the sensory neuron to the motor neuron within the spinal cord? Answer: Association neuron (Also known as an interneuron).
Q. Kidneys perform their osmoregulatory role under the effect of Antidiuretic Hormone; which type of urine is produced in this situation? Answer: Hypertonic urine with decreased volume
Q. Which of the following muscle types are involuntary in action? Answer: Cardiac and smooth
Q. If a normal person marries with a color-blind female, what will be the possibility of a normal male child? Answer: 0%
Q. In which of the following combinations, both components have non-striated muscle fibers? Answer: Intestine & blood vessels
Q. A student observed a boundary in both plant and animal cells that controls entry and exit of substances. Which of the following structures is likely being observed? Answer: Plasma membrane
Q. Which of the following characters is shared by both skeletal and cardiac muscles? Answer: Presence of striation
Q. Glycoproteins are formed as a result of the combination of? Answer: Carbohydrates and proteins
Q. The main role of mRNA during protein synthesis is to? Answer: Carry genetic information for protein synthesis
Q. Which layer of uterus nourishes the embryo after implantation? Answer: Endometrium
Q. The process of spermatogenesis occurs in which part of the male reproductive system? Answer: Seminiferous tubules
Q. Which part of the neuron typically receives incoming signals from other neurons? Answer: Dendrites
Q. Peptide bonds are important in protein because they? Answer: Link amino acid
Q. According to Lamarck, the evolution of long necks in giraffes is explained by? Answer: Stretching of necks over generations
Q. Salts are crystalline solids, having high melting point and boiling point. Which one of the following salts is insoluble in water? Answer: Calcium carbonate
Q. Why are retroviruses placed in a separate class of RNA viruses? Answer: They use reverse transcriptase to make DNA from RNA
Q. A mature and duplicated chromosome consists of? Answer: Two identical double helix DNA molecules
Q. The most primitive respiratory process occurring in a living cell is? Answer: Glycolysis
Q. Receive, retain and nourish a fertilized ovum is the main function of? Answer: Uterus
Q. The primary function of larynx is? Answer: Voice production
Q. During menstrual cycle, luteinizing hormone (LH) is secreted due to? Answer: Increase in Estrogen
Q. Left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected with each other by? Answer: Corpus callosum
Q. Which is the common feature between cardiac and smooth muscles? Answer: Involuntary
Q. The joints which cause rotational movements are ? Answer: Ball and Socket
Q. Self-fertilization in plants through successive generations can lead to the development of? Answer: True breeding plants
Q. Why thick filaments are unable to bind with thin filament in a relaxed muscle fiber? Answer: Tropomyosin blocks the myosin binding site
Q. The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by Answer: Hydrogen bonds
Q. Which of the following best highlights the importance of proteins in immunity? Answer: They act as antibodies
Q. Neurotransmitters are secreted by the neuron from? Answer: Axon ends
Q. The complementary base pairing in DNA is important because it? Answer: Allows DNA act as a genetic blueprint during replication
Q. Which of the following best describes “acquired characteristics” according to Lamarckism? Answer: Traits developed by use or disuse
Q. According to Lock and Key model, the active site is regarded as? Answer: Rigid and specific
Q. Which type of neurons stimulate muscles to contract in a reflex arc? Answer: Motor neurons
Q. Which of the following statements best compares cell division in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? Answer: Eukaryotes divide by mitosis; prokaryotes by binary fission
Q. Which one of the following biomolecules is a polymer/polysaccharide? Answer: Glycogen
Q. Olfactory receptors are the type of? Answer: Chemoreceptors
Q. Which of the following organisms eliminate nitrogenous waste mainly in the form of uric acid? Answer: Birds
Q. Which of the following cells possess Nissl’s granules? Answer: Nerve cells
Q. Which type of joint is present in pubis? Answer: Cartilaginous joints
Q. Arthritis is? Answer: Inflammation of joints
Q. Which part of human brain is involved in maintaining the posture and balance of the body? Answer: Cerebellum
Q. A person in hot weather is unable to maintain body temperature. Which physiological process has failed? Answer: Vasodilation and sweating
Q. The main idea in Darwin’s Theory of “Origin of species by natural selection” is Answer: Evolution occurs through gradual accumulation of adaptation through successive generations
Q. Which of the following is a key feature of RNA? Answer: Ribose and uracil
Q. The first consequence of lymphatic blockage in tissues is? Answer: Excess fluid accumulation in tissue
Q. Tissue fluid in a lymphatic system is called as? Answer: Lymph
Q. A plant crossed a plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and a plant with wrinkled green seeds (rryy), what was the phenotype of all F1 offspring? Answer: All round, yellow seeds
Q. Which of the following is the correct higher (left) to lower (right) sequence of molecules with respect to their amount in the cell? Answer: rRNA → tRNA → mRNA
Q. Effect of increased substrate concentration on enzyme activity? Answer: Increase the reaction rate until all active sites are saturated
Q. An oligosaccharide is made up of at least? Answer: Two saccharide units
Q. Which statement best explains the difference between humoral and cell mediated immune response? Answer: Humoral immunity involves B-lymphocytes and cell mediated immunity involves T-lymphocytes
Q. Which of the following blood vessels have lowest blood velocity and why is it correct reason for low blood velocity? Answer: Capillaries: Due to highest overall cross-sectional area
Q. The function of nucleolus is to make? Answer: rDNA
Q. The pubic symphysis is a slightly movable joint joined by which of the following tissue? Answer: Fibrocartilage
Q. In a pea plant seed color is determined by two alleles: Y (yellow, dominant) and y (green recessive). What parental cross would most likely result in offspring showing a 1:1 ratio of yellow to green seeds? Answer: Yy × yy
Q. Identify the most appropriate function of chromosomes ? Answer: Storage of genetic information
Q. Enzymes belong to which class of biomolecules? Answer: Proteins
Q. What arranges the DNA into the chromosomes in a eukaryotic cell? Answer: Histones
Q. The following is an example of a globular protein? Answer: Hemoglobin
Q. The process of osmoregulation refers to? Answer: The regulation of solute and water movement between an organism and its environment
Q. Which property of water helps in moderating Earth’s climate and maintaining stable temperature in aquatic environment? Answer: High specific heat capacity
Q. A baby girl is born with hemophilia which is an X-linked recessive disorder. What are the most likely genotypes of her parents? Answer: The mother is carrier and the father is hemophiliac.
Q. Which of the following types of RNA make up the largest proportion of total cellular RNA? Answer: Ribosomal RNA
Q. The active athlete has larger storage of something compared to an officer of same age with physically inactive lifestyle. Which of the following organelles has greatly increased in the muscle cells of athletes? Answer: Mitochondria
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