Q. The Coulomb’s law states ______? Answer: Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them
Q. 1KWh = _______J? Answer: 3.6 MJ
Q. The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it is statement of _______? Answer: Lenz’s Law
Q. The SI Unit of Capacitance of capacitor is called? Answer: Farad
Q. Work done is equal to ______? Answer: Effort × distance
Q. The value of Planck constant is _____? Answer: 6.63 × 10^-34 Js
Q. The centripetal acceleration of an object moving along a circle of radius 𝑟 with an angular speed 𝜔 is given by the formula _____? Answer: 𝑎 = 𝑟𝜔²
Q. According to Newton’s Law of Motion the mass of the object is a quantitative measure of its ______? Answer: Inertia
Q. In velocity time graph the area under graph is equal to the _____? Answer: Distance covered by object
Q. The two dimensional motion under constant acceleration due to gravity is called? Answer: Projectile motion
Q. The range of projectile will be maximum if the factor sin2θ becomes _____? Answer: 1
Q. The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is _____? Answer: Along the tangent
Q. In an elastic collision the total kinetic energy ______? Answer: Before and after collision remains the same
Q. The formula V = W/qo represents _____? Answer: Electric potential
Q. What is the value of heat energy (Q) in an adiabatic process? Answer: 0
Q. During the isothermal process, the temperature _____? Answer: Remains constant throughout the process
Q. The distance between two successive particles which are exactly in the same state of vibration is called? Answer: Wavelength
Q. Select the appropriate Doppler equation when source is approaching the stationary observer. Answer: fo = v / (v – vs) fs
Q. Which one of the following does not cause stationary waves? Answer: Two waves of unequal amplitude
Q. In transverse waves the portion above the mean level is called ______? Answer: Wave crest
Q. An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding ______? Answer: High energy particles on stable elements
Q. Which of the following is NOT the Somatic biological effect of radiation? Answer: Gene mutation
Q. If we have “No” number of any radioactive element then after a period of “n” half-lives the number of atoms left behind is? Answer: (1/2)^n No
Q. The unit of decay constant is ______? Answer: s⁻¹
Q. Which of the following regarding X Rays is INCORRECT? Answer: Have higher wavelength than visible light
Q. The potential through which an electron should be accelerated, so that, on collision it can lift the electron in the atom from its ground state to some higher state is known as? Answer: Excitation potential
Q. Which series falls in ultra violet region? Answer: Lyman series
Q. Light propagates through space as a wave is evident by all of the following EXCEPT? Answer: Photoelectric effect
Q. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle moving at 10^6 m/s and having mass 10^-30 kg? Answer: 6.6 × 10^-10 m
Q. A diode characteristic curve is a plot between ______? Answer: Voltage and current
Q. Full wave rectification is given by ______? Answer: Four diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
Q. The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier? Answer: Diode
Q. In an ideal transformer ______? Answer: Power input is equal to Power output
Q. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked? Answer: Distance between consecutive nodes is 1 wavelength
Q. Amplitude in the following figure is given as? Answer: Answer see in detail…
Q. A roller coaster is moving with 30 ms^-1 on a circular track of radius 30m. The net mass of coaster + passengers is ‘m’ the centripetal force acting on it is? Answer: m
Q. A particle of mass ‘m’ is moving on a circular path of radius ‘r’ with velocity ‘v’, then centripetal force acting on it is F. if the velocity of particle increases by 2 times and radius of circular path increases by 4 times then new centripetal force F’ will be? Answer: F’ = F
Q. An air craft makes a turn in a horizontal circle of radius100m. It is travelling with a velocity of 250m/sec. The angular velocity of the air craft will be? Answer: 2.5 rad/sec
Q. An electric motor is used to lift the weight of 2.0N through a vertical distance of 100 cm in 4 sec. What is the power output of the motor? Answer: 0.5 W
Q. When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of force, the work done is? Answer: 1 J
Q. Which of the following is a non-conservative force? Answer: Frictional force
Q. Electric intensity between two oppositely charge plates in the middle region is _____? Answer: Uniform
Q. Find potential difference in moving 2 C charge which requires 600J of work between two points? Answer: 300V
Q. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of electric forces? Answer: They act on masses
Q. A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be _____? Answer: 3 A
Q. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the potential difference across it as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant is known as? Answer: Ohm’s Law
Q. When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes ______? Answer: Remains same
Q. The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature ______? Answer: Decreases
Q. Volt × Ampere is the measure of ______? Answer: Power
Q. The formula Φ = B.A represents ______? Answer: Magnetic flux
Q. Which of the following statement is incorrect for any magnetic field lines? Answer: Magnetic field is strongest when the lines are farthest
Q. The unit of magnetic flux density is ______? Answer: Wbm^-2
Q. In an AC generator the emf will be maximum when factor sinωt is equal to ______? Answer: 1
Q. Electric generators and transformers are based on the principles of ______? Answer: Faraday’s law
CHEMISTRY
Q. Which of the following has a coordinate bond? Answer: NH₃BF₃
Q. The real gases show deviation from ideal behavior at _____? Answer: Low temperature and high pressure
Q. Identify the CORRECT option required for the maximum yield of ammonia by Haber’s process? Answer: High pressure low temperature continual removal of ammonia
Q. The principle that states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium the system nullify the effect of stress as far as possible is? Answer: Le-Chatelier Principle
Q. Which type of isomerism is displayed by compounds having same structural formula but different position of atoms on both sides of carbon bond? Answer: Metamerism
Q. I-Butene and II-Butene are showing which type of isomerism? Answer: Position isomerism
Q. Which of the following is NOT a property of transition elements? Answer: Ions and compounds are colorless
Q. Electronic configuration of chromium (Proton number 24) is _____? Answer: [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹
Q. Which of the following is NOT an Alloy? Answer: Graphite
Q. The solubility of sulphates of alkaline metals generally ______? Answer: Decrease down the group
Q. Which of the following is not Basic in nature? Answer: Aluminum oxide
Q. The difference of lithium from the other alkali metals is mainly because of ______? Answer: Small radius and high charge density
Q. Which of the following has smallest atomic radius? Answer: S
Q. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory? Answer: Only lone pairs participate in determining geometry of molecules
Q. Which one of the following is not an amino acid? Lysine, Folic acid, Glutamic acid, Glycine Answer: Folic acid
Q. When carboxylic acid are heated with alcohol in the presence of sulphuric acid one of the following is formed? Answer: Esters
Q. Which of the following is correct regarding phenol? Answer: Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid
Q. Common name of 2-hydroxy propanoic acid is? Answer: Lactic acid
Q. Which of the following alcohol can give Iodoform reaction? Answer: Ethanol
Q. Reaction of HCN with formaldehyde is a ______? Answer: Nucleophilic addition reaction
Q. The blue color of Fehling solution is changed to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to formation of which of the following? Answer: Cu₂O
Q. CnH2nO is the general formula of ______? Answer: Ketones
Q. Alkyl Halides involving -C-X bond breakage and -C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow which one of the following mechanisms? Answer: SN2
Q. Identify the correct statement related to substitution and elimination of alkyl halides? Answer: Role of leaving groups in elimination is similar to substitution
Q. Identify correct ascending order of reactivity of alkyl halides? Answer: F, Cl, Br, I
Q. In Friedel Craft acylation an acyl group is introduced in benzene ring in the presence of catalyst _____? Answer: AlCl₃
Q. Which one of the following DO NOT have tendency to form hydrogen bonding? Answer: Hydrocarbon
Q. In order to boil water at 110°C, external pressure should be _____? Answer: 760 – 1200 torr
Q. The correct ideal gas equation is ____? Answer: PV = nRT
Q. Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are ______? Answer: Absent
Q. Which of the following electronic configuration is correct for carbon? Answer: 1s²2s²2p²
Q. The p orbital has ______? Answer: 2 lobes
Q. No individual atom in the sample of 1 mole of Neon has a mass of 20.18 a.m.u. because it is ______? Answer: Average atomic mass of Ne
Q. The atomic masses of element depend upon _____? Answer: Number of isotopes and their abundance
Q. The type and relative amount of each isotope in an element can be found by ______? Answer: Mass Spectrometry
Q. Number of moles in an element is directly proportional to _____? Answer: Mass of an element
Q. Which of the following is an example of substituent group which release electrons to benzene ring? Answer: -NH₂
Q. Homocyclic organic compounds are sub divided into two types namely? Answer: Alicyclic and Aromatic
Q. Which of the following is NOT a correct feature of electrolytic cells? Answer: Alternating current source is connected to electrodes
Q. Which step is irrelevant with respect to balancing of redox equations by oxidation number method? Answer: Split the reaction into two half reactions
Q. Oxidation number of ‘Mn’ in KMnO₄ is _______? Answer: +7
Q. The enthalpy change when 1 Mole of water is formed by the reaction of acid with an alkali under standard conditions is known as? Answer: Enthalpy of neutralization
Q. All of the following steps are used to calculate the lattice energy in Born-Haber cycle EXCEPT? Answer: Deionize the metal
Q. In endothermic reaction, the heat content of the _____? Answer: Products is more than that of reactants
Q. Which of the following is CORRECT Arrhenius equation? Answer: K = Ae^-Ea/RT
Q. The step whose rate does not depend on the concentration of reactants is? Answer: Zero order reaction
Q. Consider the hypothetical equation aA + bB → cC + dD: Which of the following represents correct rate equation? Answer: Rate = k[A]^a[B]^b
Q. Identify the correct formula to calculate rate of reaction? Answer: Change in concentration of substance ÷ Time taken for the change
Q. Consider the following reaction in equilibrium and tell addition of which chemical will turn the cloudy solution into clear solution? BiCl₃ + H₂O ⇌ BiOCl + 2HCl Answer: HCl
Q. In graphite the carbon atoms are arranged in which of the following structure? Answer: Hexagonal
Q. One of the following is NOT an example of amorphous solids? Answer: Glucose
Q. Whenever the crystalline solids are broken they do so along definite planes known as? Answer: Cleavage planes
Q. Boiling point of a liquid is a temperature at which _____? Answer: Vapour pressure equals atmospheric pressure
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