Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967 PDF

Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967
Most Important Exam Questions & Answers

Q1. When was the Punjab Land Revenue Act enforced?
Answer: 7 December 1967
Q2. What is the short title of this Act?
Answer: Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967
Q3. Under which Act number was it enacted?
Answer: West Pakistan Act XVII of 1967
Q4. What is the main objective of the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967?
Answer: To consolidate and amend the law relating to land revenue, record-of-rights, assessment, collection of land revenue, appointment and functions of Revenue Officers, and matters connected with land revenue administration.
Q5. To which area does this Act extend?
Answer: It extends to the whole Province of Punjab except the Tribal Areas.
Q6. Which section deals with the Short Title, Extent and Commencement?
Answer: Section 1.
Q7. How does the Government bring this Act into force?
Answer: By issuing a Notification.
Q8. Who has the power to exempt any area from the provisions of this Act?
Answer: The Government.
Q9. Which section deals with the power to exempt an area?
Answer: Section 2.
Q10. Who can make rules for an exempted area?
Answer: The Government.
Q11. Which section deals with the exclusion of certain land?
Answer: Section 3.
Q12. Who may notify an area where the provisions relating to land revenue assessment and collection do not apply?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q13. What is an Agricultural Year?
Answer: A year commencing on the first day of July or on such other date as notified by the Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q14. What are Arrears of Land Revenue?
Answer: Land revenue remaining unpaid after the due date.
Q15. What is an Assessment Circle?
Answer: A group of estates having similar characteristics for the assessment of land revenue.
Q16. What is the Board of Revenue?
Answer: The Board established under the Punjab Board of Revenue Act, 1957.
Q17. What is a Boundary Mark?
Answer: A natural or artificial mark used to identify the boundary of land.
Q18. What does Commencement mean?
Answer: The date on which the Act or any provision of the Act comes into operation.
Q19. Who is a Defaulter?
Answer: A person liable to pay arrears of land revenue.
Q20. Does the term Defaulter include a Surety?
Answer: Yes.
Q21. What is an Encumbrance?
Answer: A charge upon or claim against land arising out of a private grant or contract.
Q22. What is an Estate?
Answer: An area having a separate Record-of-Rights, separate land revenue assessment, or declared as an estate by the Board of Revenue.
Q23. Who may declare an area as an Estate?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q24. What is a Holding?
Answer: A share or portion of an estate held by one or more landowners.
Q25. What is Irrigated Land?
Answer: Land irrigated by canal, tube well, well, lift, spring, tank, or any other artificial means.
Q26. Who is included in the term Kanungo?
Answer: A Supervising Tapedar.
Q27. Who is a Landlord?
Answer: A person under whom a tenant holds land and pays rent.
Q28. Who is a Landowner?
Answer: A person who owns or possesses land but does not include a tenant.
Q29. Is a Tenant considered a Landowner?
Answer: No.
Q30. What is Land Revenue?
Answer: Land revenue assessed under this Act or any other law relating to land revenue, including rates imposed due to the increase in land value because of irrigation.
Q31. What is included in Land Revenue?
Answer: Rates imposed on account of increase in the value of land due to irrigation.
Q32. Who is a Legal Practitioner?
Answer: A legal practitioner under the Legal Practitioners Act, 1879, except a Mukhtar.
Q33. Which section contains the definitions used in this Act?
Answer: Section 4.
Q34. Which authority may appoint a different date for the Agricultural Year?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q35. Which chapter contains the preliminary provisions of the Act?
Answer: Chapter I (Preliminary).
Q36. What are Net Assets of an Estate?
Answer: The estimated average annual surplus produce remaining after deducting the ordinary expenses of cultivation.
Q37. What are Ordinary Expenses of Cultivation?
Answer: Expenses normally borne by the landowner for cultivation.
Q38. Which expenses are included in Ordinary Expenses of Cultivation?
Answer:
• Water rates
• Maintenance of irrigation
• Maintenance of embankments
• Supply of seed
• Supply of manure
• Improved agricultural implements
• Fodder concessions
• Abatement for fallow or bad harvest
• Cost of rent collection
• Shortage in rent collection
• Interest on cultivation advances
• Wages paid to village auxiliaries
Q39. Is the tenant’s normal share included while calculating Net Assets?
Answer: Yes.
Q40. Who is included in the term Patwari?
Answer: Tapedar, Special Tapedar and Additional Tapedar.
Q41. What does the word “Pay” include in relation to Rent?
Answer: Deliver and Render.
Q42. What does “Prescribed” mean?
Answer: Prescribed by rules made under this Act.
Q43. What are Rates and Cesses?
Answer: Charges primarily payable by landowners under the law.
Q44. Which charges are included in Rates and Cesses?
Answer:
• Local Rate
• Drainage Rate
• Village Officers’ Cess
• Village Expenses
Q45. What is Rent?
Answer: Anything payable by a tenant to the landlord in cash or kind for the use of land.
Q46. What is not included in Rent?
Answer: Cess, contribution, dues, or free personal service.
Q47. What is a Revenue Court?
Answer: A Court constituted under the tenancy law.
Q48. What is a Revenue Officer?
Answer: An officer authorized under this Act to perform revenue functions.
Q49. What is a Survey Mark?
Answer: A mark established by the Department of Survey of Pakistan.
Q50. What is a Survey Number?
Answer: A separately recorded portion of land identified by a Khasra Number.
Q51. What is another name for Survey Number?
Answer: Khasra Number.
Q52. What is a Tenant?
Answer: A person who holds land under another person and pays rent.
Q53. Does the definition of Tenant include successors-in-interest?
Answer: Yes.
Q54. Who is not considered a Tenant?
Answer:
• Mortgagee of a landowner’s rights.
• Person holding land for recovery of land revenue.
• Government lessee of unoccupied land for subletting.
Q55. What is a Tenancy?
Answer: A parcel of land held by a tenant under one lease or one set of conditions.
Q56. What is Unirrigated Land?
Answer: Land other than irrigated land, including rain-fed, flood-fed, hill torrent, uncultivable and waste land.
Q57. What is a Village Officer?
Answer: A person appointed under this Act to collect or supervise the collection of land revenue.
Q58. Which officials are included in the term Village Officer?
Answer:
• Kanungo
• Patwari
• Zabit
• Kotar
• Tapedar
• Peon
• Arbab
• Rais
• Lambardar (Headman)

Chapter II – Divisions and Districts
Q59. Which Chapter deals with Divisions and Districts?
Answer: Chapter II.
Q60. Which section provides for the creation of Divisions?
Answer: Section 5.
Q61. Who has the power to create Divisions?
Answer: The Government.
Q62. How are Divisions created?
Answer: By Notification.
Q63. A Division consists of how many Districts?
Answer: Two or more Districts.
Q64. Who declares Districts in the Province?
Answer: The Government.
Q65. Can the Government change the limits of a Division or District?
Answer: Yes, by Notification.
Q66. Which section deals with Sub-Divisions and Tehsils?
Answer: Section 6.
Q67. Who has the power to divide a District into Sub-Divisions or Tehsils?
Answer: The Government.
Q68. How is a District divided into Sub-Divisions or Tehsils?
Answer: By Notification.
Q69. A Sub-Division may consist of how many Tehsils?
Answer: One or more Tehsils.
Q70. Who specifies the territorial limits of a Sub-Division?
Answer: The Government.
Q71. Can the Government change the number or limits of Sub-Divisions or Tehsils?
Answer: Yes, by Notification.
Q72. What are Net Assets?
Answer: Net Assets mean the annual surplus remaining after deducting the expenses of cultivation.
Q73. Who is included in the term “Patwari” under the Land Revenue Act?
Answer: Patwari includes Tapedar, Special Tapedar, and Additional Tapedar.
Q74. What is another name for a Survey Number?
Answer: A Survey Number is also known as a Khasra Number.
Q75. To whom does a tenant pay rent?
Answer: A tenant pays rent to the landlord.
Q76. In what forms may rent be paid?
Answer: Rent may be paid in money or in kind.
Q77. What is not included in the definition of rent?
Answer: Rent does not include cess or free personal service.
Q78. Who is responsible for the collection of land revenue?
Answer: The Village Officer is responsible for the collection of land revenue.
Q79. Under which section are Divisions created?
Answer: Divisions are created under Section 5.
Q80. Under which section are Sub-Divisions and Tehsils created?
Answer: Sub-Divisions and Tehsils are created under Section 6.
Q81. How does the Government create Divisions, Districts, Sub-Divisions, and Tehsils?
Answer: The Government creates Divisions, Districts, Sub-Divisions, and Tehsils through an official notification.
Q82. How many districts must a Division consist of?
Answer: A Division must consist of at least two districts.

Chapter III – Appointment and Powers of Revenue Officers

Q83. Which Chapter deals with the Appointment and Powers of Revenue Officers?
Answer: Chapter III.
Q84. Which section deals with the Classes of Revenue Officers?
Answer: Section 7.
Q85. How many classes of Revenue Officers are provided under the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967?
Answer: Six (6).
Q86. Name the classes of Revenue Officers.
Answer:
(a) Board of Revenue
(b) Commissioner
(c) Collector
(d) Assistant Commissioner
(e) Assistant Collector First Grade
(f) Assistant Collector Second Grade
Q87. Which section deals with the appointment of Commissioners and Collectors?
Answer: Section 8.
Q88. Who appoints the Commissioner of a Division?
Answer: The Government.
Q89. Who appoints the Collector of a District?
Answer: The Government.
Q90. Who is the Commissioner appointed for?
Answer: A Division.
Q91. Who is the Collector appointed for?
Answer: A District.
Q92. Which section deals with Additional Commissioners and Additional Collectors?
Answer: Section 9.
Q93. Who appoints an Additional Commissioner?
Answer: The Government.
Q94. Under whose control does an Additional Commissioner work?
Answer: Under the general control of the Commissioner.
Q95. What powers does an Additional Commissioner exercise?
Answer: Any powers and duties conferred or imposed on the Commissioner.
Q96. Who appoints an Additional Collector?
Answer: The Government.
Q97. Under whose control does an Additional Collector work?
Answer: Under the general control of the Collector.
Q98. What powers does an Additional Collector exercise?
Answer: Any powers and duties conferred or imposed on the Collector.
Q99. Which section deals with Assistant Commissioners and Assistant Collectors?
Answer: Section 10.
Q100. Who appoints Assistant Commissioners and Assistant Collectors?
Answer: The Government.
Q101. How many Assistant Commissioners and Assistant Collectors may be appointed?
Answer: As many as the Government deems expedient.
Q102. Who may be placed in charge of the revenue administration of a Sub-Division?
Answer: An Assistant Commissioner.
Q103. Which powers may be conferred on an Assistant Commissioner?
Answer: Any powers of the Collector under Section 16(1).
Q104. Which Assistant Collector may exercise the powers of a Collector?
Answer: Assistant Collector of the First Grade.
Q105. Under whose control does an Assistant Commissioner exercise the powers of a Collector?
Answer: Under the control of the Collector of the District.
Q106. Under whose control does an Assistant Collector First Grade exercise the powers of a Collector?
Answer: Under the control of the Collector of the District.
Q107. Which section deals with Tehsildars?
Answer: Section 11.
Q108. Who is the chief officer of a Tehsil?
Answer: Tehsildar.
Q109. What is the duty of a Tehsildar?
Answer: To administer the local revenue administration of a Tehsil.
Q110. What powers does a Tehsildar exercise?
Answer: Such powers and duties of an Assistant Collector as are conferred by or under the Act.
Q111. Which section provides that appointments shall be made by Notification?
Answer: Section 12.
Q112. How are appointments of Revenue Officers made?
Answer: By Notification.

Administrative Control

Q113. Which section deals with the superintendence and control of Revenue Officers?
Answer: Section 13.
Q114. Under whose control is the Board of Revenue?
Answer: The Government.
Q115. Who exercises general superintendence and control over all Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q116. To whom are all Revenue Officers subordinate?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q117. Who controls the Revenue Officers in a Division?
Answer: The Commissioner.
Q118. Who controls the Revenue Officers in a District?
Answer: The Collector.
Q119. Under whose general control does the Commissioner work?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q120. Under whose general control does the Collector work?
Answer: The Board of Revenue and the Commissioner.

Section 14 – Distribution and Transfer of Business

Q121. Which section deals with the distribution, withdrawal and transfer of cases?
Answer: Section 14.
Q122. Who may distribute business among Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q123. How does the Board of Revenue distribute business?
Answer: By written order.
Q124. Who may withdraw a pending case?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q125. Can a Commissioner withdraw a pending case?
Answer: Yes.
Q126. Can a Collector withdraw a pending case?
Answer: Yes.
Q127. After withdrawing a case, what may the Board of Revenue do?
Answer: Dispose of it itself or refer it to another Revenue Officer.
Q128. After withdrawing a case, what may the Commissioner or Collector do?
Answer: Dispose of it themselves or transfer it to another Revenue Officer.
Q129. Can a Revenue Officer exercise powers outside his jurisdiction under Section 14?
Answer: No.

Section 15 – Combination of Offices

Q130. Which section deals with the Combination of Offices?
Answer: Section 15.
Q131. Can one person hold two or more Revenue Offices?
Answer: Yes.
Q132. Who may appoint one person to hold two or more Revenue Offices?
Answer: The Government.

Section 16 – Conferment of Powers

Q133. Which section deals with the conferment of powers?
Answer: Section 16.
Q134. Who may confer the powers of a Commissioner or Collector?
Answer: The Government.
Q135. How are the powers of a Commissioner or Collector conferred?
Answer: By Notification.
Q136. Who may confer the powers of an Assistant Collector?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q137. Can the Government withdraw the powers conferred on a Commissioner or Collector?
Answer: Yes.
Q138. Can the Board of Revenue withdraw the powers of an Assistant Collector?
Answer: Yes.
Q139. Within what limits does a person exercise the powers conferred under Section 16?
Answer: Within the local limits and classes of cases specified by the Government or the Board of Revenue.

Section 17 – Functions of Revenue Officers

Q140. Which section deals with the Functions of Revenue Officers?
Answer: Section 17.
Q141. Who determines the functions of Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q142. How are the functions determined?
Answer: By Notification.

Section 18 – Retention of Powers

Q143. Which section deals with the Retention of Powers after Transfer?
Answer: Section 18.
Q144. Does a Revenue Officer retain his powers after transfer?
Answer: Yes.
Q145. Under what condition does a Revenue Officer retain his powers after transfer?
Answer: When transferred as a Revenue Officer of the same or a higher class, unless otherwise directed by the Government or the Board of Revenue.

Section 7 – Classes of Revenue Officers

Q1. What are the classes of Revenue Officers under the Punjab Land Revenue Act?
Answer: Board of Revenue, Commissioners, Collectors, Assistant Collectors of the First Grade, and Assistant Collectors of the Second Grade.
Q2. Which is the highest Revenue Authority under the Punjab Land Revenue Act?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q3. Who appoints the Commissioner and Collector?
Answer: The Government appoints the Commissioner and Collector by notification.
Q4. What is the role of a Collector?
Answer: A Collector is the chief Revenue Officer of a district.
Q5. Who appoints an Additional Commissioner and an Additional Collector?
Answer: The Government appoints them by notification.
Q6. What powers may an Additional Commissioner or Additional Collector exercise?
Answer: They may exercise all or any of the powers of the Commissioner or Collector as directed by the Government.
Q7. Who appoints Assistant Commissioners and Assistant Collectors?
Answer: The Government appoints them by notification.
Q8. What are the grades of Assistant Collectors?
Answer: First Grade and Second Grade.
Q9. Who appoints a Tehsildar?
Answer: The Government appoints a Tehsildar.
Q10. What is the primary function of a Tehsildar?
Answer: To perform revenue administration and exercise powers assigned under the Act.
Q11. How are appointments of Revenue Officers made under the Act?
Answer: By notification issued by the Government.
Q12. Why is a notification necessary for appointments?
Answer: To give legal effect to the appointment of Revenue Officers.
Section 13 – Administrative Control
Q13. Who exercises administrative control over Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue exercises overall control, while Commissioners and Collectors supervise subordinate Revenue Officers.
Q14. Which authority has general superintendence over Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Section 14 – Distribution, Withdrawal and Transfer of Cases
Q15. Who may distribute, withdraw, or transfer revenue cases?
Answer: The Board of Revenue, Commissioner, or Collector, according to their jurisdiction.
Q16. Why are revenue cases transferred?
Answer: For proper administration and efficient disposal of cases.
Section 15 – Combination of Offices
Q17. Can one person hold more than one Revenue Office?
Answer: Yes. The Government may combine two or more Revenue Offices and appoint one person to hold them.
Q18. Who has the authority to combine Revenue Offices?
Answer: The Government.
Section 16 – Conferment of Powers
Q19. Who may confer powers on Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue or the Government, as provided under the Act.
Q20. Can a Revenue Officer exercise powers without being authorized?
Answer: No. A Revenue Officer can exercise only those powers that have been lawfully conferred upon him.

Section 17 – Functions of Revenue Officers

Q21. What functions do Revenue Officers perform?
Answer: They perform duties and exercise powers assigned under the Punjab Land Revenue Act and other applicable laws.
Q22. Can Revenue Officers perform functions under other laws?
Answer: Yes. They may perform functions assigned under any other law in force.

Section 18 – Retention of Powers after Transfer

Q23. Does a Revenue Officer automatically retain his powers after transfer?
Answer: No. He retains such powers only as permitted under the Act or by Government orders.
Q24. Can a transferred Revenue Officer complete pending proceedings?
Answer: Yes, if authorized under the Act or by the competent authority.

Chapter IV – Procedure of Revenue Officers

Q146. Which Chapter deals with the Procedure of Revenue Officers?
Answer: Chapter IV.
Q147. Which section deals with the Subordination of Revenue Officers?
Answer: Section 19.
Q148. To whom is a Revenue Officer subordinate while performing official duties?
Answer: To the officer to whom he is subordinate.
Q149. In what matters is a Revenue Officer subject to the control of his superior officer?
Answer: Place, time, and manner of performing his functions.
Q150. Which section deals with the power to make procedural rules?
Answer: Section 20.
Q151. Who may make rules regarding the procedure of Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q152. Can the rules made under Section 20 be inconsistent with the Act?
Answer: No.
Q153. What may the rules provide for under Section 20?
Answer: Enforcement of ejectment orders and delivery of possession of immovable property.
Q154. Can a Revenue Officer refer a case to a subordinate Revenue Officer?
Answer: Yes.
Q155. On what basis may a Revenue Officer decide a referred case?
Answer: On the investigation report after hearing the parties.
Q156. Which section deals with appearance before Revenue Officers?
Answer: Section 21.
Q157. Who may appear before a Revenue Officer?
Answer:
(a) The parties themselves.
(b) Their authorised agents.
(c) Their legal practitioners.
Q158. Does engaging a legal practitioner exempt a party from personal appearance?
Answer: No, if personal attendance is specifically required by the Revenue Officer.
Q159. Are legal practitioner’s fees automatically allowed as costs?
Answer: No.
Q160. When may legal practitioner’s fees be allowed as costs?
Answer: When the Revenue Officer records reasons in writing.
Q161. Which section deals with summoning persons to give evidence and produce documents?
Answer: Section 22.
Q162. Who may summon a person to appear?
Answer: A Revenue Officer.
Q163. For what purpose may a Revenue Officer summon a person?
Answer: For any business before him.
Q164. Is a summoned person bound to appear?
Answer: Yes.
Q165. Who may represent a summoned person if permitted in the summons?
Answer: An authorised agent or a legal practitioner.
Q166. Is a summoned person bound to speak the truth?
Answer: Yes.
Q167. Is a summoned person bound to produce documents?
Answer: Yes.
Q168. Which section provides that a summons must be in writing?
Answer: Section 23.
Q169. In what form shall a summons be issued?
Answer: In writing and in duplicate.
Q170. What must every summons contain?
Answer:
• Purpose of issuance.
• Signature of the Revenue Officer.
• Official seal (if available).
Q171. Which section deals with the service of summons?
Answer: Section 24.
Q172. How may a summons be served?
Answer:
• Personally.
• Through an authorised agent.
• Through an adult family member.
Q173. If personal service is not possible, how may a summons be served?
Answer:
• By affixing a copy at the last known residence.
• By post through the Collector.
• By affixing a copy near the estate.
Q174. Can a summons be served by registered post?
Answer: Yes.
Q175. Can a summons be served through electronic means?
Answer: Yes.
Q176. Which electronic means may be used for service of summons?
Answer:
• E-mail.
• Short Message Service (SMS).
Q177. When is electronic service presumed to be valid?
Answer: Upon confirmation of delivery.
Q178. Which section deals with service of notice, order or proclamation?
Answer: Section 25.
Q179. How are notices and orders served?
Answer: In the same manner as a summons.
Q180. Does an error in a person’s name make a notice invalid?
Answer: No, unless it causes substantial injustice.
Q181. Which section deals with proclamation?
Answer: Section 26.
Q182. How is a proclamation made?
Answer:
• By beat of drum or customary method.
• By affixing a copy at a conspicuous place.
Q183. Which section declares inquiries as judicial proceedings?
Answer: Section 27.
Q184. Are inquiries under this Act judicial proceedings?
Answer: Yes.
Q185. Under which law are such inquiries treated as judicial proceedings?
Answer: Pakistan Penal Code, 1860.
Q186. Is a Revenue Officer deemed to be a Court during an inquiry?
Answer: Yes.
Q187. Are hearings under this Act held in public?
Answer: Yes.
Q188. Which section deals with the language of Revenue Offices?
Answer: Section 28.
Q189. Who determines the language of Revenue Offices?
Answer: The Government.
Q190. How is the language declared?
Answer: By Notification.
Q191. Which section deals with the arrest of a defaulter?
Answer: Section 29.
Q192. Can a defaulter be arrested without a warrant?
Answer: No.
Q193. Who issues the warrant for the arrest of a defaulter?
Answer: The competent Revenue Officer.
Q194. Which section gives Revenue Officers the power to enter land or premises?
Answer: Section 30.
Q195. For what purposes may a Revenue Officer enter land?
Answer:
• Measurement.
• Demarcation.
• Fixation of boundaries.
• Inspection of boundary marks.
• Soil classification.
• Land assessment.
• Any lawful revenue purpose.
Q196. Can a Revenue Officer enter a residential house without consent?
Answer: No.
Q197. What notice is required before entering a dwelling house?
Answer: At least seven days’ notice.
Q198. Which section deals with the place of sittings?
Answer: Section 31.
Q199. Where may a Revenue Officer exercise his powers?
Answer: Within the limits of his jurisdiction.
Q200. Where may an Assistant Collector First Grade exercise his powers?
Answer: Anywhere within the District in which he is employed.
Q201. Which section validates proceedings held on holidays?
Answer: Section 32.
Q202. Are proceedings held on a public holiday invalid?
Answer: No.
Q203. Which section deals with official seals?
Answer: Section 33.
Q204. Who prescribes the seals of Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Government.
Q205. Which section deals with costs?
Answer: Section 34.
Q206. Who may award costs in proceedings?
Answer: A Revenue Officer.
Q207. When must reasons be recorded regarding costs?
Answer: When the costs do not follow the event.
Q208. Which section deals with penalties?
Answer: Section 35.
Q209. What is the penalty for failure to comply with a summons, notice, order or proclamation?
Answer: A fine up to Rs. 500.
Q210. Who imposes the fine under Section 35?
Answer: The Revenue Officer.
Q1. To whom are Revenue Officers subordinate under the Punjab Land Revenue Act?
Answer: Revenue Officers are subordinate to the Board of Revenue and to the Revenue Officers placed above them.
Q2. Who exercises control over subordinate Revenue Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue, Commissioners, and Collectors.
Q3. Who has the power to make rules under the Punjab Land Revenue Act?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q4. Why are rules made under the Act?
Answer: To carry out the purposes and provisions of the Act.
Q5. Who may appear before a Revenue Officer?
Answer: A person may appear personally, through a recognized agent, or through a legal practitioner.
Q6. Can a party appoint a representative to appear before a Revenue Officer?
Answer: Yes, through a recognized agent or legal practitioner.
Q7. What powers does a Revenue Officer have regarding witnesses and documents?
Answer: A Revenue Officer may summon witnesses and require the production of documents.
Q8. Why may witnesses and documents be summoned?
Answer: To assist in the inquiry or proceedings before the Revenue Officer.
Q9. In what form must a summons be issued?
Answer: A summons must be issued in writing.
Q10. Who issues a written summons?
Answer: The concerned Revenue Officer.
Q11. How is a summons served under the Act?
Answer: A summons is served in the prescribed manner under the Act.
Q12. What is the purpose of serving a summons?
Answer: To require a person to appear before the Revenue Officer or produce documents.
Q13. How are notices and orders served?
Answer: They are served in the manner prescribed under the Act.
Q14. What is the purpose of serving notices and orders?
Answer: To inform the concerned persons of official proceedings or decisions.
Q15. When may a Revenue Officer issue a proclamation?
Answer: When public notice is required under the Act.
Q16. Why is a proclamation issued?
Answer: To notify the public or interested persons regarding revenue proceedings.
Q17. Proceedings before a Revenue Officer are deemed to be proceedings under which law?
Answer: They are deemed to be judicial proceedings under the law.
Q18. Why are Revenue proceedings treated as judicial proceedings?
Answer: To ensure legal validity and accountability.
Q19. In which language are Revenue Office proceedings conducted?
Answer: In the language prescribed by the Government.
Q20. Who determines the language to be used in Revenue Offices?
Answer: The Government.
Q21. When may a defaulter be arrested?
Answer: A defaulter may be arrested in accordance with the provisions of the Act for recovery of dues.
Q22. Why can a Revenue Officer order the arrest of a defaulter?
Answer: To recover arrears of land revenue or other recoverable dues.
Q23. Can a Revenue Officer enter upon land for official purposes?
Answer: Yes, a Revenue Officer may enter land for duties authorized under the Act.
Q24. Why may a Revenue Officer enter land?
Answer: For survey, inspection, measurement, inquiry, or other official purposes.
Q25. Where may a Revenue Officer hold proceedings?
Answer: At such place as he considers appropriate for official business.
Q26. Can Revenue proceedings be held outside the office?
Answer: Yes, when necessary.
Q27. Can Revenue proceedings be conducted on public holidays?
Answer: Yes, if authorized under the Act.
Q28. Are proceedings held on holidays legally valid?
Answer: Yes.
Q29. What is used to authenticate official acts of Revenue Officers?
Answer: The official seal.
Q30. Why is an official seal important?
Answer: It gives legal authenticity to official documents and orders.
Q31. Who determines the costs of Revenue proceedings?
Answer: The Revenue Officer, according to law and rules.
Q32. Against whom may costs be awarded?
Answer: Against any party, as considered just by the Revenue Officer.
Q33. What is the maximum fine under Section 35?
Answer: Rs. 500.
Q34. Who may impose the penalty under Section 35?
Answer: The Revenue Officer, as authorized under the Act.

Chapter V – Village Officers

Q211. Which Chapter deals with Village Officers?
Answer: Chapter V.
Q212. Which section deals with the rules regulating Village Officers?
Answer: Section 36.
Q213. Who may make rules regarding Village Officers?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q214. What matters may be regulated under Section 36?
Answer:
• Appointment
• Duties
• Emoluments
• Punishment
• Suspension
• Removal of Village Officers
Q215. Which section deals with the Village Officers’ Cess?
Answer: Section 37.
Q216. Who may impose the Village Officers’ Cess?
Answer: The Government.
Q217. How is the Village Officers’ Cess imposed?
Answer: By Notification.
Q218. On whom may the Village Officers’ Cess be imposed?
Answer: On all or any estates in the Province.
Q219. What is the maximum rate of the Village Officers’ Cess?
Answer: Five percent (5%) of the land revenue.
Q220. Why is the Village Officers’ Cess imposed?
Answer: To remunerate Village Officers who are not Government servants.
Q221. Who makes rules regarding the collection and distribution of the Village Officers’ Cess?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q222. Which section deals with restrictions on the remuneration of Village Officers?
Answer: Section 38.
Q223. Can the remuneration of a Village Officer be attached by a Civil Court?
Answer: No.
Q224. Can the remuneration of a Village Officer be attached by a Revenue Court?
Answer: No.
Q225. Can the remuneration of a Village Officer be assigned or charged without authorization?
Answer: No.
Q226. Who authorizes the assignment of remuneration?
Answer: The Board of Revenue through rules.

Chapter VI – Records

Q227. Which Chapter deals with Records?
Answer: Chapter VI.
Q228. Which section deals with Record-of-Rights?
Answer: Section 39.
Q229. Is there a Record-of-Rights for every estate?
Answer: Yes.
Q230. What documents are included in the Record-of-Rights?
Answer:
• Statement of Landowners and Tenants
• Nature and extent of rights
• Rent, Land Revenue, Rates and Cesses
• Statement of Customs
• Map of the Estate
• Other prescribed documents
Q231. Which section deals with the special revision of Record-of-Rights?
Answer: Section 40.
Q232. Who may order the preparation or special revision of a Record-of-Rights?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q233. How is the special revision ordered?
Answer: By Notification.
Q234. Which section deals with Periodical Records?
Answer: Section 41.
Q235. Who prepares the Periodical Record?
Answer: The Patwari under the directions of the Collector.
Q236. Who directs when Periodical Records are prepared?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q237. What register must the Patwari maintain for Periodical Records?
Answer: Register of Mutations.
Q238. Which section deals with Computerized Records?
Answer: Section 41-A.
Q239. Who prepares Computerized Records?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q240. Which section deals with Computerized Periodical Records?
Answer: Section 41-B.
Q241. Who prepares Computerized Periodical Records?
Answer: The Collector.
Q242. Which section deals with reporting acquisition of ownership rights?
Answer: Section 42.
Q243. Within how many months must acquisition of ownership rights be reported?
Answer: Within three months.
Q244. To whom is the acquisition reported?
Answer: The Patwari.
Q245. Which register records the acquisition of rights?
Answer: Register of Mutations.
Q246. What record does the Patwari first enter?
Answer: Roznamcha.
Q247. Which section deals with reporting acquisition of rights to the Arazi Record Centre?
Answer: Section 42-A.
Q248. Where is the acquisition of rights reported under the computerized system?
Answer: Arazi Record Centre.
Q249. Which section deals with acquisition of interests other than ownership?
Answer: Section 43.
Q250. Who records undisputed interests?
Answer: The Patwari.
Q251. Which section deals with determination of disputes?
Answer: Section 44.
Q252. Who decides disputes relating to entries in records?
Answer: A Revenue Officer.
Q253. Which section deals with restrictions on variation of entries?
Answer: Section 45.
Q254. Can Record-of-Rights be changed without lawful grounds?
Answer: No.
Q255. Which section deals with Mutation Fees?
Answer: Section 46.
Q256. Who fixes Mutation Fees?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q257. Who may fix computerized mutation fees?
Answer: Punjab Land Records Authority.
Q258. Who pays the Mutation Fee?
Answer: The person in whose favour the mutation is entered.
Q259. Which section deals with furnishing information for records?
Answer: Section 47.
Q260. Is a person bound to provide information required by the Revenue Officer?
Answer: Yes.
Q261. Which section deals with penalties for failure to report acquisition of rights?
Answer: Section 48.
Q262. What is the maximum fine under Section 48?
Answer: Rs. 500.
Q263. Which section deals with Government ownership of mines and minerals?
Answer: Section 49.
Q264. Who owns all mines and minerals?
Answer: The Government.
Q265. Who owns Nuclear Energy, Mineral Oil and Natural Gas?
Answer: The Federal Government.
Q266. Who owns all other mines and minerals?
Answer: The Government of Punjab.
Q267. Which section deals with ownership of forests, quarries and waste land?
Answer: Section 50.
Q268. Which section deals with compensation for infringement of rights?
Answer: Section 51.
Q269. Under which Act is compensation determined?
Answer: Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
Q270. Which section creates a presumption in favour of entries in Record-of-Rights?
Answer: Section 52.
Q271. Are entries in Record-of-Rights presumed to be correct?
Answer: Yes, until the contrary is proved.
Q272. Which section allows filing a declaratory suit against wrong entries?
Answer: Section 53.
Q273. Under which Act is a declaratory suit filed?
Answer: Specific Relief Act, 1877.
Q274. Which section deals with Record-of-Rights for groups of estates?
Answer: Section 54.
Q275. Which section gives the Board of Revenue power to call for information?
Answer: Section 54-A.
Q276. What is the punishment for providing false information under Section 54-A?
Answer: Simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both.
Q277. Which section deals with rule-making regarding records?
Answer: Section 55.
Q278. Who makes rules regarding records?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q279. Which section deals with the rights of Government in mines and minerals?
Answer: Section 49.
Q280. Who is the owner of all mines and minerals under the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967?
Answer: The Government.
Q281. Which Government owns Nuclear Energy, Mineral Oil and Natural Gas?
Answer: The Federal Government.
Q282. Which Government owns all other mines and minerals?
Answer: The Government of Punjab.
Q283. Can any custom, contract or court decree override Government ownership of mines and minerals?
Answer: No.
Q284. Which section deals with the ownership of forests, quarries and waste lands?
Answer: Section 50.
Q285. What is presumed if an old Record-of-Rights does not mention ownership of forests or waste lands?
Answer: They are presumed to belong to the Government.
Q286. Can this presumption be rebutted?
Answer: Yes.
Q287. How can the presumption be rebutted?
Answer: By proving from the Record-of-Rights or assessment record that the property was considered while assessing land revenue.
Q288. Until the presumption is rebutted, who is treated as the owner?
Answer: The Government.
Q289. Which section deals with compensation for infringement of rights?
Answer: Section 51.
Q290. When is compensation payable?
Answer: When Government infringes the rights of any person while exercising its rights.
Q291. Under which Act is compensation determined?
Answer: Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
Q292. Which section creates the presumption of correctness of Record-of-Rights?
Answer: Section 52.
Q293. Are entries in the Record-of-Rights presumed to be correct?
Answer: Yes.
Q294. Until when are entries presumed correct?
Answer: Until the contrary is proved or a lawful new entry is substituted.
Q295. Which section allows a person to challenge a wrong entry?
Answer: Section 53.
Q296. Who may file a declaratory suit?
Answer: Any person aggrieved by an entry in the Record-of-Rights or Periodical Record.
Q297. Under which Act is a declaratory suit filed?
Answer: Specific Relief Act, 1877.
Q298. Which section deals with Record-of-Rights for groups of estates?
Answer: Section 54.
Q299. Who may order one Record-of-Rights for a group of neighbouring estates?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q300. How is such an order made?
Answer: By Notification.
Q301. Which section deals with the power to call for information?
Answer: Section 54-A.
Q302. Who may require a landowner to furnish information regarding land ownership?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q303. What information may be required under Section 54-A?
Answer: Information regarding the extent of land ownership inside or outside Punjab.
Q304. What is the punishment for failing to furnish information or giving false information?
Answer: Simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both.
Q305. Who can file a complaint under Section 54-A?
Answer: A Revenue Officer specially or generally empowered by the Board of Revenue.
Q306. Which section deals with the power to make rules regarding records?
Answer: Section 55.
Q307. Who makes rules regarding records?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with the previous approval of the Government.
Q308. What matters may be prescribed under Section 55?
Answer:
• Language of records.
• Forms of records and registers.
• Preparation, signing and attestation of records.
• Survey of land.
• Conduct of inquiries.
• Guidance of Revenue Officers and Village Officers.

Chapter VII – Assessment

Q279. Which Chapter deals with Assessment?
Answer: Chapter VII.
Q280. Which section deals with the assessment of land revenue?
Answer: Section 56.
Q281. Is all land liable to the payment of land revenue?
Answer: Yes, except land exempted under Section 56.
Q282. Which lands are exempt from payment of land revenue?
Answer:
• Land exempted by special contract or law.
• Land included in a village site.
• Land within Cantonment limits.
• Land subject to Punjab Urban Immovable Property Tax.
• Waste and barren land not cultivated for six continuous years.
Q283. In what form is land revenue assessed?
Answer: In cash.
Q284. What are the two methods of assessment of land revenue?
Answer:
• Fixed annual charge.
• Prescribed rates per acre or unit of area.
Q285. Can land revenue be assessed on a sliding scale based on market prices?
Answer: No.
Q286. Which section provides exemption from land revenue?
Answer: Section 56-A.
Q287. From which crop season is exemption under Section 56-A applicable?
Answer: Rabi 1982-83.
Q288. Up to how much irrigated land is exempt from land revenue?
Answer: Up to 2½ acres.
Q289. Up to how much unirrigated land is exempt from land revenue?
Answer: Up to 5 acres.
Q290. Which section deals with the basis of assessment?
Answer: Section 57.
Q291. On what basis is land revenue assessed?
Answer: On the estimated average money value of the gross produce.
Q292. How is the estimate prepared?
Answer: In the prescribed manner.
Q293. Which section prescribes the limit of assessment?
Answer: Section 58.
Q294. What is the maximum limit of assessment?
Answer: One-fourth (25%) of the estimated money value of the net assets.
Q295. Which section deals with General Assessment?
Answer: Section 59.
Q296. What are the two kinds of assessments?
Answer:
• General Assessment.
• Special Assessment.
Q297. Can a general assessment be made without Government sanction?
Answer: No.
Q298. Who grants sanction for a general assessment?
Answer: The Government.
Q299. Which section deals with the mode of determining assessment?
Answer: Section 60.
Q300. Who makes a general assessment?
Answer: A Revenue Officer.
Q301. To whom does the Revenue Officer submit assessment proposals?
Answer: The Board of Revenue through the Commissioner.
Q302. Which section deals with the announcement of assessment?
Answer: Section 61.
Q303. Who finally passes orders on assessment proposals?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q304. Who announces the assessment?
Answer: The Revenue Officer.
Q305. Who declares the date from which assessment takes effect?
Answer: The Revenue Officer.
Q306. By how much can the average assessment of an assessment circle normally increase?
Answer: Not more than one-fourth (25%).
Q307. By how much can the assessment of an individual estate normally increase?
Answer: Not more than one-half (50%).
Q308. Which section allows reconsideration of assessment?
Answer: Section 62.
Q309. Within how many days may a landowner apply for reconsideration?
Answer: Within 30 days.
Q310. Which section deals with confirmation of assessment?
Answer: Section 63.
Q311. When does an assessment become final?
Answer: After confirmation by the Board of Revenue.
Q312. Who may modify an assessment before confirmation?
Answer:
• Commissioner.
• Board of Revenue.
Q313. Before enhancement of assessment, what must be given to landowners?
Answer: Reasonable notice by proclamation.
Q314. Which section deals with the duration of assessment?
Answer: Section 64.
Q315. What is the normal duration of an assessment?
Answer: 25 years.
Q316. What is the minimum duration in canal-irrigated areas?
Answer: 10 years.
Q317. Which section provides that an old assessment continues until a new one takes effect?
Answer: Section 65.
Q318. Which section deals with refusal to accept assessment?
Answer: Section 66.
Q319. Within how many days may a landowner refuse liability for an assessment?
Answer: Within 90 days.
Q320. What may happen if the assessment is refused?
Answer: The Collector may take possession of the estate.
Q321. What percentage of net income is payable to the landowner while Government manages the estate?
Answer: Not less than 50% and not more than 75%.
Q322. Which section deals with distribution of assessment?
Answer: Section 67.
Q323. Who distributes the assessment among holdings?
Answer: The Revenue Officer.
Q324. Who may revise the distribution record?
Answer: The Collector.
Q325. Which section deals with amendment of distribution?
Answer: Section 68.
Q326. Within how many days can an affected person apply for amendment?
Answer: Within 30 days.
Q327. Which section deals with appeals?
Answer: Section 69.
Q328. Where does the first appeal lie?
Answer: To the Commissioner.
Q329. Where does the second appeal lie?
Answer: To the Board of Revenue.
Q330. Which section deals with Special Assessment?
Answer: Section 70.
Q331. Name any four situations where Special Assessment may be made.
Answer:
• Change in the form of assessment.
• Government sale or lease of land.
• Revision due to flood, sand or calamity.
• Waste land becoming cultivable.
Q332. Who confirms a Special Assessment?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q333. Which section provides enhanced land revenue?
Answer: Section 70-A.
Q334. From which crop season is enhanced land revenue applicable?
Answer: Rabi 1982-83.
Q335. What is the enhancement for Category-I landowners?
Answer: 50%.
Q336. What is the enhancement for Category-II landowners?
Answer: 100%.
Q337. What is the enhancement for Category-III landowners?
Answer: 200%.
Q338. What is the enhancement for Category-IV landowners?
Answer: 300%.
Q339. Which section deals with determination of land ownership?
Answer: Section 70-B.
Q340. For assessment purposes, one acre of irrigated land is equal to how many acres of unirrigated land?
Answer: Two acres.
Q341. Which section requires information regarding increase in land ownership?
Answer: Section 70-C.
Q342. What is the penalty for giving false information under Section 70-C?
Answer: Punishment under Section 54-A.
Q343. Which section deals with change in the basis of exemption or assessment?
Answer: Section 70-D.
Q344. To whom is an application under Section 70-D submitted?
Answer: Assistant Collector.
Q345. Before passing an adverse order under Section 70-D, how much notice must be given?
Answer: 15 days.
Q346. Which section empowers Government to prescribe the method of exemption or assessment?
Answer: Section 70-E.
Q347. Which section deals with rule-making powers?
Answer: Section 71.
Q348. Who makes rules regarding assessment?
Answer: The Government.
Q349. Which section prescribes the procedure for making rules?
Answer: Section 72.
Q350. Before making rules, what must the Government publish?
Answer: A draft of the proposed rules by notification.
Q351. Which section deals with executive instructions?
Answer: Section 73.
Q352. Who may issue executive instructions?
Answer:
• Government.
• Board of Revenue (with Government approval).

Q353. Which section deals with the assessment of land revenue?
Answer: Section 56.
Q354. Which section deals with exemption from land revenue?
Answer: Section 56-A.
Q355. Which section deals with the basis of assessment?
Answer: Section 57.
Q356. Which section prescribes the limit of assessment?
Answer: Section 58.
Q357. Which section deals with General Assessment?
Answer: Section 59.
Q358. Which section explains the mode of determining assessment?
Answer: Section 60.
Q359. Which section deals with the announcement of assessment?
Answer: Section 61.
Q360. Which section allows reconsideration of assessment?
Answer: Section 62.
Q361. Which section deals with confirmation of assessment?
Answer: Section 63.
Q362. Which section prescribes the duration of assessment?
Answer: Section 64.
Q363. What is the normal duration of an assessment?
Answer: 25 years.
Q364. Which section provides that the old assessment continues until a new assessment takes effect?
Answer: Section 65.
Q365. Which section deals with refusal to accept assessment?
Answer: Section 66.
Q366. Which section deals with the distribution of assessment among holdings?
Answer: Section 67.
Q367. Which section allows amendment of the distribution of assessment?
Answer: Section 68.
Q368. Which section deals with appeals against assessment orders?
Answer: Section 69.
Q369. Which section deals with Special Assessment?
Answer: Section 70.
Q370. Which section provides for enhanced land revenue?
Answer: Section 70-A.
Q371. What are the enhanced land revenue rates under Section 70-A?
Answer: 50%, 100%, 200%, and 300%.
Q372. Which section deals with the determination of land ownership?
Answer: Section 70-B.
Q373. Which section requires information about an increase in land ownership?
Answer: Section 70-C.
Q374. Which section deals with change in the basis of exemption or assessment?
Answer: Section 70-D.
Q375. Which section empowers the Government to prescribe the method of exemption or assessment?
Answer: Section 70-E.
Q376. Which section empowers the Government to make rules regarding assessment?
Answer: Section 71.
Q377. Which section prescribes the procedure for making rules?
Answer: Section 72.
Q378. Which section deals with executive instructions?
Answer: Section 73.
Q379. Who may issue executive instructions under Section 73?
Answer: The Government or the Board of Revenue with the approval of the Government.

Q380. Who is liable for the payment of land revenue?
Answer: The holding and its landowner are liable. If there are joint landowners, all are jointly and severally liable.
Q381. What is the first charge upon the rents, profits, and produce of a holding?
Answer: Land revenue.
Q382. Can rents and produce be attached before land revenue is paid?
Answer: No, unless the Collector gives prior consent.
Q383. Who fixes the installments and mode of payment of land revenue?
Answer: The Board of Revenue.
Q384. Until new directions are issued, how is land revenue payable?
Answer: According to the existing system before the commencement of the Act.
Q385. Who may make rules regarding collection, remission, and suspension of land revenue?
Answer: The Board of Revenue with prior approval of the Government.
Q386. Are the costs of recovery treated as part of land revenue arrears?
Answer: Yes.
Q387. What is conclusive proof of land revenue arrears?
Answer: A certified statement of account by a Revenue Officer.
Q388. Which section provides the methods for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Section 80.
Q389. How many methods are available for recovery of land revenue arrears?
Answer: Eight.
Q390. What is the first method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Notice of demand.
Q391. What is the second method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Arrest and detention of the defaulter.
Q392. What is the third method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Distress and sale of movable property and crops.
Q393. What is the fourth method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Transfer of the holding.
Q394. What is the fifth method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Attachment of the holding.
Q395. What is the sixth method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Annulment of assessment.
Q396. What is the seventh method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Sale of the holding.
Q397. What is the eighth method for recovery of arrears?
Answer: Proceedings against other immovable property of the defaulter.
Q398. When may a notice of demand be issued?
Answer: On or after the day following the accrual of land revenue arrears.
Q399. After how many days may a defaulter be arrested if arrears remain unpaid?
Answer: After 20 days from the service of the notice of demand.
Q400. Who issues the warrant of arrest?
Answer: A Revenue Officer.

Q401. Under which section can a Revenue Officer recover certain arrears instead of by filing a suit?
Ans: Section 113
Q402. Who may recover unpaid land revenue as arrears of land revenue under Section 113?
Ans: Revenue Officer
Q403. Which officer is required to collect land revenue under Section 36?
Ans: Village Officer
Q404. If a Village Officer collects revenue but fails to deposit it, how can it be recovered?
Ans: As arrears of land revenue
Q405. Which section deals with other sums recoverable as arrears of land revenue?
Ans: Section 114
Q406. Are fees, fines and costs recoverable as arrears of land revenue?
Ans: Yes
Q407. Is Village Officers’ cess recoverable as arrears of land revenue?
Ans: Yes
Q408. Can revenue from pasture and natural products of land be recovered as arrears?
Ans: Yes
Q409. Are water rates recoverable as arrears of land revenue?
Ans: Yes
Q410. Can canal maintenance charges be recovered as arrears of land revenue?
Ans: Yes
Q411. Can a surety be held liable for payment of recoverable sums?
Ans: Yes
Q412. Who may declare additional sums recoverable in the public interest?
Ans: Government
Q413. Which section applies Chapter VIII to other recoverable sums?
Ans: Section 115
Q414. Under Section 115, these sums are treated as what?
Ans: Arrears of land revenue
Q415. Which section applies when recovery is not charged on the land itself?
Ans: Section 90
Q416. Which section provides for recovery charges on non-provincial dues?
Ans: Section 115-A
Q417. What is the recovery commission under Section 115-A?
Ans: 2%
Q418. Where is the recovery commission credited?
Ans: Provincial Consolidated Fund
Q419. Which chapter deals with Surveys and Boundaries?
Ans: Chapter X
Q420. Which section authorizes revenue surveys?
Ans: Section 116
Q421. Who may order a revenue survey?
Ans: Board of Revenue
Q422. A revenue survey is ordered by what?
Ans: Notification
Q423. What is the main purpose of a revenue survey?
Ans: Settlement of land revenue and preparation of record-of-rights
Q424. Can a revenue survey cover only specified land?
Ans: Yes
Q425. Who may exclude land from a revenue survey?
Ans: Officers conducting the survey
Q426. Which section empowers Revenue Officers to define boundaries?
Ans: Section 117
Q427. Who may define the limits of an estate or holding?
Ans: Revenue Officer
Q428. Can a Revenue Officer require boundary marks to be erected?
Ans: Yes
Q429. Can old boundary marks be restored by a Revenue Officer?
Ans: Yes
Q430. Which section deals with surveys for preparation of records?
Ans: Section 118
Q431. During a survey, persons having rights in land may be required to do what?
Ans: Indicate boundaries by temporary marks
Q432. Failure to comply with a survey notice may result in what?
Ans: Fine up to Rs. 50
Q433. Which section requires landowners to assist in surveys?
Ans: Section 119
Q434. What helpers may landowners be required to provide?
Ans: Flag-holders and chainmen
Q435. If landowners fail to provide helpers, who bears the cost?
Ans: Landowners
Q436. How is survey cost recovered from landowners?
Ans: As arrears of land revenue
Q437. Which section deals with professional surveys?
Ans: Section 120
Q438. Who may order a professional survey?
Ans: Board of Revenue
Q439. What is issued before a professional survey?
Ans: Notification
Q440. Which section gives survey officers powers of Revenue Officers?
Ans: Section 120(2)
Q441. Which section empowers the Board to make rules for boundary demarcation?
Ans: Section 121
Q442. Rules under Section 121 may prescribe what?
Ans: Form and material of boundary marks
Q443. Which section explains the effect of settlement of boundaries?
Ans: Section 122
Q444. Settlement of a boundary determines what?
Ans: Boundary position and ownership rights
Q445. Who may evict a wrongful occupier after boundary settlement?
Ans: Collector
Q446. Which section deals with fixing boundaries between riverain estates?
Ans: Section 123
Q447. Who may order a permanent boundary between riverain estates?
Ans: Board of Revenue
Q448. Who fixes the boundary after the Board’s order?
Ans: Collector
Q449. Permanent riverain boundaries require whose approval?
Ans: Commissioner
Q450. Which section explains the effect of fixing riverain boundaries?
Ans: Section 124
Q451. Riverain boundaries become what after approval?
Ans: Permanent boundaries
Q452. When may transfer of rights be suspended?
Ans: When land is under cultivation or yields substantial produce
Q453. Who decides whether land is fit for cultivation?
Ans: Collector
Q454. Which section allows application for immediate transfer of rights?
Ans: Section 125
Q455. Immediate transfer requires payment of what?
Ans: Compensation
Q456. Which section deals with award of compensation?
Ans: Section 126
Q457. Which Act guides compensation assessment under Section 126?
Ans: Land Acquisition Act, 1894
Q458. On what date do transferred rights vest after compensation is deposited?
Ans: 15th May
Q459. What happens if compensation is refused?
Ans: It is deposited in Government Treasury
Q460. Which section states that voluntary transfers are not affected?
Ans: Section 127
Q461. Rights voluntarily transferred vest in whom?
Ans: Landowners of the other estate
Q462. Which section provides that transferred rights carry liabilities of the new estate?
Ans: Section 128
Q463. Which section deals with cost of boundary and survey marks?
Ans: Section 129
Q464. Who generally bears the cost of boundary marks?
Ans: Persons interested in the land
Q465. Who must prevent destruction of village boundary marks?
Ans: Village Officers
Q466. Which section deals with recovery of costs incurred by Government?
Ans: Section 130
Q467. How many days are allowed to repair a boundary mark?
Ans: 30 days
Q468. Who may recover the repair cost?
Ans: Collector
Q469. Recovery of repair cost is made as what?
Ans: Arrears of land revenue
Q470. Which section makes landowners responsible for boundary marks?
Ans: Section 131
Q471. Who is responsible for maintaining survey marks?
Ans: Landowner
Q472. Which section requires reporting damage to boundary marks?
Ans: Section 132
Q473. Who must report destruction of boundary marks?
Ans: Village Officer
Q474. Which section provides that land measurement is based on square system or rectangulation?
Ans: Section 133
Q475. What is the minimum area of a khasra number?
Ans: One acre
Q476. Which section provides penalty for damaging boundary marks?
Ans: Section 134
Q477. Maximum fine for destroying a boundary mark?
Ans: Rs. 500
Q478. Does this fine bar criminal prosecution?
Ans: No
Q479. Which section of the Pakistan Penal Code is referred to in Section 134?
Ans: Section 434 PPC
Q480. Under Section 134, who may impose the fine?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q481. Which chapter deals with Partition?
Ans: Chapter XI

Q482. Which section provides for application for partition?
Ans: Section 135

Q483. Who may apply for partition of land?
Ans: Any joint owner of land

Q484. A joint owner may apply for partition if his share is recorded under which chapter?
Ans: Chapter VI

Q485. Can a person apply for partition on the basis of a subsisting decree?
Ans: Yes

Q486. Can a written acknowledgment by all interested persons support a partition application?
Ans: Yes

Q487. Which section deals with partition in case of inheritance?
Ans: Section 135-A

Q488. After inheritance mutation is sanctioned, who serves notice for private partition?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q489. Within how many days must joint landowners submit a private partition scheme?
Ans: 30 days

Q490. Which section is followed to affirm a private partition scheme?
Ans: Section 147

Q491. Can a private partition scheme include the site of a town or village?
Ans: Yes

Q492. What happens if no private partition scheme is submitted within the prescribed time?
Ans: Revenue Officer starts partition proceedings

Q493. Which section provides restrictions and limitations on partition?
Ans: Section 136

Q494. Places of worship and burial grounds held jointly before partition shall remain how?
Ans: Jointly held

Q495. Can partition of a common water-course be refused?
Ans: Yes

Q496. Can partition of a common well or tank be refused?
Ans: Yes

Q497. Can partition of a grazing ground be refused?
Ans: Yes

Q498. Can partition of village site land be refused?
Ans: Yes

Q499. Who decides whether partition of common property should be refused?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q500. Which section deals with notice of application for partition?
Ans: Section 137

Q501. Who fixes the hearing date after receiving a partition application?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q502. Notice of partition application is served upon whom?
Ans: Recorded co-sharers

Q503. Can notice also be served on other interested persons?
Ans: Yes

Q504. Which section deals with addition of parties to partition?
Ans: Section 138

Q505. If another co-sharer also wants partition, what will the Revenue Officer do?
Ans: Add him as an applicant

Q506. Which section deals with procedure on admission of partition application?
Ans: Section 140

Q507. What two types of disputes are distinguished during partition proceedings?
Ans: Questions of title and mode of partition

Q508. Which section deals with question of title in partition proceedings?
Ans: Section 141

Q509. Who decides the question of title during partition proceedings?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q510. Which section deals with disposal of other questions?
Ans: Section 142

Q511. Can an appeal be filed against an order under Section 142?
Ans: Yes

Q512. Within how many days can an appeal under Section 142 be filed?
Ans: 30 days

Q513. What happens to partition proceedings when an appeal is certified?
Ans: Proceedings are stayed

Q514. Can an applicant withdraw from partition proceedings?
Ans: Yes

Q515. Who grants permission for withdrawal from partition proceedings?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q516. Which section prescribes the time limit for partition cases?
Ans: Section 142-A

Q517. Within how many days should a partition case normally be decided?
Ans: 180 days

Q518. Who may grant extension for deciding a partition case?
Ans: District Collector

Q519. What is the maximum extension that may be granted?
Ans: 60 days

Q520. If title is involved, how much additional time is allowed?
Ans: 180 days

Q521. What action may be taken if the Revenue Officer delays the case without justification?
Ans: Disciplinary action

Q522. Which section deals with administration of property excluded from partition?
Ans: Section 143

Q523. Who determines the use of property excluded from partition?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q524. Which section deals with distribution of revenue after partition?
Ans: Section 144

Q525. Who determines the land revenue payable by each new holding?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q526. Within how many years may the Board order redistribution of land revenue due to fraud or error?
Ans: 12 years

Q527. Which section deals with the instrument of partition?
Ans: Section 145

Q528. What document is prepared after partition is completed?
Ans: Instrument of partition

Q529. What date is recorded in the instrument of partition?
Ans: Date on which partition takes effect

Q530. Which section deals with delivery of possession after partition?
Ans: Section 146

Q531. Within how many years may an owner apply for possession after partition?
Ans: 3 years

Q532. The instrument of partition is enforced like what?
Ans: A decree for immovable property

Q533. Which section deals with affirmation of privately effected partition?
Ans: Section 147

Q534. Who may apply for affirmation of a private partition?
Ans: Any party to the partition

Q535. Who affirms a privately effected partition?
Ans: Revenue Officer

Q536. Which sections may be applied after affirmation of a private partition?
Ans: Sections 143, 144, 145 and 146

Q537. Which section empowers the Board of Revenue to make rules regarding partition costs?
Ans: Section 148

Q538. Who makes rules regarding the costs of partition?
Ans: Board of Revenue

Q539. Which section deals with redistribution of land according to custom?
Ans: Section 149

Q540. On whose application may customary redistribution be enforced?
Ans: Land-owner

Q541. According to what is redistribution enforced under Section 149?
Ans: Established custom

Q542. Which section specifies officers competent to act under this chapter?
Ans: Section 150

Q543. What is the minimum rank of Revenue Officer for partition proceedings?
Ans: Assistant Collector of the First Grade


Q544. Under which Chapter is Arbitration discussed in the Punjab Land Revenue Act?
Answer: Chapter XII
Q545. Which section deals with the Power to Refer to Arbitration?
Answer: Section 151
Q546. Who may refer a dispute to arbitration with the consent of the parties?
Answer: Any Revenue Officer
Q547. Under Section 151(1), whose consent is required for arbitration?
Answer: The consent of the parties
Q548. Which officers may refer certain disputes to arbitration without the consent of the parties?
Answer: Collector or Assistant Collector of the First Grade
Q549. Matters relating to which Chapter may be referred to arbitration without consent?
Answer: Chapter VI (Record of Rights)
Q550. Which section deals with the distribution of assessment that may be referred to arbitration?
Answer: Section 67
Q551. Which disputes regarding land boundaries may be referred to arbitration?
Answer: Disputes regarding the limits of an estate, holding, field, or other portion of an estate
Q552. Which partition matters may be referred to arbitration?
Answer: Property to be divided or the mode of making partition
Q553. Which section deals with the Order of Reference and its contents?
Answer: Section 152
Q554. What must a Revenue Officer make before referring a dispute to arbitration?
Answer: An Order of Reference
Q555. What must be specified in the Order of Reference?
Answer: The precise matter submitted to arbitration
Q556. What else must be mentioned in the Order of Reference?
Answer: The number of arbitrators each party may nominate
Q557. What time limit must also be mentioned in the Order of Reference?
Answer: The period within which arbitrators are to be nominated
Q558. What final period must the Order of Reference specify?
Answer: The period within which the award is to be delivered
Q559. What is the maximum number of arbitrators each party may nominate?
Answer: Two
Q560. Can both parties nominate different numbers of arbitrators?
Answer: No, the number must be the same.

Q561. Under which Chapter are Appeal, Review and Revision discussed?
Answer: Chapter XIII
Q562. Which section deals with Appeals?
Answer: Section 161
Q563. To whom does an appeal lie against the order of an Assistant Collector?
Answer: The Collector
Q564. To whom does an appeal lie against the order of a Collector?
Answer: The Commissioner
Q565. To whom does an appeal lie against the order of a Commissioner?
Answer: The Board of Revenue (only on a point of law)
Q566. Can a second appeal lie if the original order is confirmed on first appeal?
Answer: No
Q567. When is the Commissioner’s order final?
Answer: When the Collector modifies or reverses the original order on appeal
Q568. An order passed in review modifying or reversing a previous order is deemed to be what?
Answer: An original order
Q569. Before confirming, modifying or reversing an order in appeal, what must be given to the parties?
Answer: Reasonable notice and opportunity of hearing
Q570. Which section deals with Limitation for Appeals?
Answer: Section 162
Q571. What is the limitation period for an appeal to the Collector?
Answer: Thirty days
Q572. What is the limitation period for an appeal to the Commissioner?
Answer: Sixty days
Q573. What is the limitation period for an appeal to the Board of Revenue?
Answer: Ninety days
Q574. From which date does the limitation period for an appeal begin?
Answer: From the date of the order appealed against
Q575. Which section deals with Review?
Answer: Section 163
Q576. Who may review his own order at any time on his own motion?
Answer: Commissioner, Collector or Assistant Collector
Q577. What may a Revenue Officer do after reviewing an order?
Answer: Modify, reverse or confirm it
Q578. On what ground may an aggrieved person apply for review?
Answer: Discovery of new and important evidence
Q579. Another ground for review is what?
Answer: Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record
Q580. What is another valid ground for review?
Answer: Any other sufficient reason
Q581. Within how many days should an application for review normally be made?
Answer: Ninety days
Q582. Can a delayed review application be entertained?
Answer: Yes, if sufficient cause is shown
Q583. Can an order of a predecessor be reviewed without sanction?
Answer: No
Q584. Whose sanction is required before a Commissioner reviews a predecessor’s order?
Answer: The Board of Revenue
Q585. Whose sanction is required before a Collector reviews a predecessor’s order?
Answer: The Commissioner
Q586. Can an order under appeal be reviewed?
Answer: No
Q587. Does an appeal lie against an order refusing review?
Answer: No
Q588. Which section deals with Revision?
Answer: Section 164
Q589. Who may call for the record of any case on revision?
Answer: The Board of Revenue
Q590. Within how many days may an application for revision be made?
Answer: Ninety days
Q591. Who may also call for the record of a case under his control?
Answer: Commissioner or Collector
Q592. If a Collector thinks an order should be modified or reversed, to whom does he report?
Answer: The Commissioner
Q593. Before modifying or reversing an order in revision, what must be given?
Answer: Opportunity of hearing to the affected person
Q594. Which section deals with Stay of Proceedings and Execution?
Answer: Section 165
Q595. Does filing an appeal automatically stay proceedings?
Answer: No
Q596. Who may grant a stay of execution?
Answer: The Appellate or Revisional Authority
Q597. What is the first condition for granting stay?
Answer: Substantial loss may result to the applicant
Q598. What is the second condition for granting stay?
Answer: The application is made without unreasonable delay
Q599. What is the third condition for granting stay?
Answer: Security is furnished where necessary
Q600. Which section deals with Clerical or Arithmetical Mistakes?
Answer: Section 166

Q 601. What is the effect of finality of orders under Section 179?
Answer: A final order means that no appeal lies against it, but the Board of Revenue may still modify, reverse, or set it aside under Section 164.
Q 602. Does the finality of an order prevent the Board of Revenue from exercising revisional powers?
Answer: No. The Board of Revenue may revise such an order under Section 164.
Q 603. Under which section can the Board of Revenue modify or reverse a final order?
Answer: Section 164.
Q 604. What restriction is placed on the appointment of Lambardars under Section 180?
Answer: Lambardars cannot be appointed in any area where the law before the commencement of the Act did not provide for such appointments.
Q 605. Can rules regarding the appointment of Lambardars be enforced in every area of the Province?
Answer: No. They cannot be enforced in areas where such rules did not previously exist.
Q 606. What protection is given to Revenue Officers under Section 181?
Answer: No suit, prosecution, or legal proceeding shall lie against a Revenue Officer for anything done in good faith under this Act or any other law in force.
Q 607. When can legal proceedings be instituted against a Revenue Officer under Section 181?
Answer: Legal proceedings cannot be instituted for acts done in good faith under the Act.
Q 608. Who has the power to make rules under Section 182?
Answer: The Board of Revenue, with the previous approval of the Government.
Q 609. Can the Board of Revenue make rules inconsistent with the Act?
Answer: No. The rules must not be inconsistent with the Act.
Q 610. Whose previous approval is required before making rules under Section 182?
Answer: The previous approval of the Government is required.
Q 611. What may the Board of Revenue prescribe regarding payment of sums under Section 182(a)?
Answer: It may prescribe the number and amount of installments, the time, place, and manner of payment.
Q 612. What may the Board of Revenue determine regarding profits under Section 182(b)?
Answer: It may fix the dates on which profits are to be divided by headmen or other persons on behalf of co-sharers.
Q 613. What may the Board of Revenue prescribe regarding Revenue Court processes?
Answer: It may prescribe the fees, collection procedure, number of process servers, and their remuneration and duties.
Q 614. What may the Board of Revenue regulate regarding inspection of records?
Answer: It may regulate the procedure for inspection and obtaining copies of records and prescribe the related fees.
Q 615. What may the Board of Revenue prescribe regarding Revenue Office records?
Answer: It may prescribe forms for books, entries, statistics, and accounts.
Q 616. For what general purpose may rules be made under Section 182(f)?
Answer: Rules may be made generally for carrying out the purposes of the Act.
Q 617. Under what condition must rules be made under Section 183?
Answer: They must be made after previous publication.
Q 618. What does Section 184 deal with?
Answer: It deals with repeals and savings.
Q 619. What happens to the enactments listed in Part One of the Schedule?
Answer: They are repealed.
Q 620. What happens to the enactments listed in Part Two when this Act comes into force?
Answer: They stand repealed to the extent applicable in the concerned area.
Q 621. What happens to existing rules, appointments, and notifications after repeal?
Answer: They continue in force if they are not inconsistent with this Act.
Q 622. What happens to rights acquired and liabilities incurred under repealed enactments?
Answer: They continue and are deemed to have been acquired or incurred under this Act.
Q 623. What happens to record-of-rights and other records prepared under repealed laws?
Answer: They continue and are deemed to have been prepared under this Act.
Q 624. What happens to land revenue assessments made under repealed enactments?
Answer: They remain in force until new assessments under this Act take effect.
Q 625. What is the purpose of the Schedule under Section 184?
Answer: It lists the enactments repealed by this Act.
Q 626. Which Part of the Schedule contains enactments that are completely repealed?
Answer: Part One.
Q 627. Which Part of the Schedule contains enactments repealed according to their applicability?
Answer: Part Two.
Q 628. Which Act appears first in Part One of the Schedule?
Answer: The Punjab Riverain Boundaries Act, 1899.
Q 629. Which Act is listed at Serial No. 5 of Part Two?
Answer: The Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887.
Q 630. What is the purpose of the savings clause in Section 184?
Answer: It preserves existing rights, liabilities, records, rules, notifications, and assessments despite the repeal of earlier laws.


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