Stage-01
Q1. Mass of Earth is _____?
Answer: 6.0 x 10^24 kg
Explanation: The mass of Earth is approximately 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg, commonly rounded to 6.0 × 10²⁴ kg.
Q2. The shortest distance between two points is called?
Answer: Displacement
Explanation: Displacement is the straight-line distance and direction from the initial to the final position.
Q3. A body is in neutral equilibrium when its center of gravity _______?
Answer: Remains at same height
Explanation: In neutral equilibrium, a body’s center of gravity does not change height when displaced.
Q4. The melting point of ice at normal atmospheric pressure is ______?
Answer: 0 °C
Explanation: Ice melts at 0 °C (273 K) under normal atmospheric pressure.
Q5. What is the SI unit of acceleration?
Answer: m/s²
Explanation: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time, measured in meters per second squared.
Q6. Newton’s first law of motion is also called as?
Answer: Law of inertia
Explanation: The first law states that a body remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.
Q7. The ratio of output to input is called?
Answer: Efficiency
Explanation: Efficiency measures how effectively a machine converts input energy/work into output energy/work.
Q8. Which one is a vector quantity?
Answer: Weight
Explanation: Weight has both magnitude and direction, making it a vector, while mass and temperature are scalars.
Q9. Heat is the form of _____?
Answer: Energy
Explanation: Heat is energy transferred between bodies due to a temperature difference.
Q10. A body is in equilibrium when it has ______?
Answer: Zero acceleration
Explanation: A body is in equilibrium if there is no net force acting, resulting in zero acceleration.
Q11. Work done per unit time is called ______?
Answer: Power
Explanation: Power measures the rate at which work is done, in watts (J/s).
Q12. During which process a gas becomes a liquid?
Answer: Condensing
Explanation: Condensation is the phase change from gas to liquid.
Q13. What is the unit for the spring constant?
Answer: Nm^-1
Explanation: The spring constant (k) is force per unit extension, measured in N/m.
Q14. Near Earth’s surface g = ______?
Answer: 10 ms^-2
Explanation: Acceleration due to gravity near Earth’s surface is approximately 9.8 m/s², rounded to 10 m/s².
Q15. Friction opposes motion between two bodies in contact because of ______?
Answer: Roughness of surfaces
Explanation: Microscopic irregularities on surfaces cause frictional force opposing motion.
Q16. Rate of evaporation of a liquid can be increased by _____?
Answer: Decreasing atmospheric pressure
Explanation: Lowering pressure reduces the boiling point, increasing the rate of evaporation.
Q17. Which is the renewable source of energy?
Answer: Solar and wind
Explanation: Solar and wind energy are naturally replenished and considered renewable sources.
Q18. Law of conservation of momentum defines that the total momentum of a system of two bodies before and after collision ______?
Answer: Remains constant
Explanation: In a closed system, total momentum is conserved during collisions.
Q19. If a machine performs 20 J of work in 10 sec. then it power is ______?
Answer: 2 watt
Explanation: Power = Work / Time = 20 J / 10 s = 2 W.
Q20. Enzyme activity decreased by ______?
Answer: Inhibitor
Explanation: Inhibitors reduce or stop the activity of enzymes.
Q21. Linear thermal expansion of a solid depend upon ____?
Answer: All of these
Explanation: Thermal expansion depends on temperature change, material properties, and original length.
Q22. Evaporation can occur at ____?
Answer: All temperatures
Explanation: Evaporation occurs at all temperatures when surface molecules escape into the air.
Q23. Thermal energy transfer required to change a liquid into gas without changing its temperature is called?
Answer: Latent heat of vaporization
Explanation: Latent heat of vaporization is the energy needed to convert liquid to gas at constant temperature.
Q24. Thermal energy transfer required to change a solid into liquid without changing its temperature is called?
Answer: Latent heat of Fusion
Explanation: Latent heat of fusion is the energy needed for melting.
Q25. A fixed temperature at which a pure liquid boils is called ______?
Answer: Boiling point
Explanation: Boiling point is the temperature at which a liquid vapor pressure equals external pressure.
Q26. Thermal energy transfer required per unit mass to increase the temperature by 1°C or 1 K is called?
Answer: Specific heat capacity
Explanation: Specific heat is the energy needed to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1°C.
Q27. The amount of heat needed to convert a substance from liquid to gas is called?
Answer: Heat of vaporization
Explanation: Heat of vaporization is the energy required to turn liquid into vapor at constant temperature.
Q28. Heat capacity is the product of mass and _______?
Answer: Specific heat of material
Explanation: Heat capacity = mass × specific heat, representing energy needed to raise temperature.
Q29. ______ is not a renewable source of energy.
Answer: Coal
Explanation: Coal is a fossil fuel and is not naturally replenished, unlike solar, wind, or geothermal energy.
Q30. Coal, gas and oil are all examples of _____?
Answer: Fossil fuel energy
Explanation: These are non-renewable energy sources formed from ancient organic matter.
Q31. The energy released during fission or fusion reaction is called?
Answer: Nuclear energy
Explanation: Energy from nuclear reactions comes from changes in the nucleus.
Q32. A body of mass 1 kg is lifted through a height of 1 m. The energy possessed in the body will be: (consider g = 10 ms^-2).
Answer: 10 Joule
Explanation: Potential energy = m × g × h = 1 × 10 × 1 = 10 J.
Q33. If a body of mass 1 kg is moving with velocity of 1 m/sec. then K.E of the body will be?
Answer: 1/2 Joule
Explanation: Kinetic energy = ½ m v² = 0.5 × 1 × 1² = 0.5 J.
Q34. If force of 6N displaces an object 2m in the direction of force, then work done will be __________?
Answer: 12 Joule
Explanation: Work = Force × Distance = 6 × 2 = 12 J.
Q35. What happens to the molecules of a gas when the gas changes into a liquid?
Answer: They move closer and lose energy
Explanation: During condensation, gas molecules come closer together and release energy.
Q36. In a liquid, some energetic molecules break free from the surface even when the liquid is too cold for bubbles to form. What is the name of this process?
Answer: Evaporation
Explanation: Evaporation is the escape of surface molecules into vapor below boiling point.
Q37. A gas in a container of fixed volume is heated. What happens to the molecules of the gas?
Answer: They move faster
Explanation: Heating increases kinetic energy, making molecules move faster.
Q38. If a gas is heated in a sealed cylinder, then _______ increases.
Answer: All of above (Heating increases pressure, average kinetic energy, and temperature of gas)
Explanation: Heating increases pressure, average kinetic energy, and temperature of gas in a sealed container.
Q39. According to kinetic molecular theory, the pressure exerted by a gas is caused by the _______?
Answer: Bombardment of the gas molecules on the walls of the container
Explanation: Gas molecules collide with container walls, producing pressure.
Q40. A solid can _______?
Answer: Have a fixed shape
Explanation: Solids have definite shape and volume; molecules vibrate but do not move freely.
Q41. A burning candle is an example of ______ state of matter.
Answer: All three
Explanation: Candle shows solid (wax), liquid (molten wax), and gas (vapor/wick flame).
Q42. An object with particles close together and vibrating describes a _______?
Answer: Solid
Explanation: In solids, particles are tightly packed and vibrate around fixed positions.
Q43. The velocity of a satellite is _____ of its mass.
Answer: Independent
Explanation: Orbital velocity depends on altitude, not on the mass of the satellite.
Q44. The critical velocity vc = ______?
Answer: √gR
Explanation: Critical velocity for fluid flow in a pipe or orbit is given by √(g × R).
Q45. _______ are used to put satellites into orbits.
Answer: Rocket
Explanation: Rockets provide the thrust needed to launch satellites into space.
Q46. A communication satellite completes its one revolution around the Earth in ______ hours.
Answer: 24
Explanation: Geostationary communication satellites orbit the Earth in 24 hours.
Q47. Your weight as measured on Earth will be _____ on Moon?
Answer: Decreased
Explanation: Gravity on the Moon is 1/6th of Earth, so weight decreases.
Q48. Spring balance is used to measure _________?
Answer: Weight
Explanation: Spring balances measure the force of gravity acting on an object.
Q49. Newton’s law of gravitation is consistent with Newton’s _________ law of motion.
Answer: 3rd
Explanation: Newton’s third law states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction. The gravitational force between two masses acts mutually on both bodies, illustrating this principle.
Q50. Gravitation force is ______ of the medium between the objects.
Answer: Independent
Explanation: Gravity acts through vacuum or air; it does not depend on the medium.
To Take Test
Stage-02
Q51. If there were no atmosphere what would be the color of the sky?
Answer: Black
Explanation: Without an atmosphere, sunlight would not scatter, so the sky would appear black.
Q52. Decibel is a unit used for meaning?
Answer: Intensity of sound
Explanation: Decibel (dB) measures the loudness or intensity of sound.
Q53. Small celestial bodies made up of ice, dust and rock are known as?
Answer: Comets
Explanation: Comets are composed of ice, dust, and rocky material and develop tails when near the Sun.
Q54. One Barrel of Petroleum is equal to?
Answer: 42 US Gallons
Explanation: Standard measure of crude oil is 42 US gallons per barrel.
Q55. The largest planet of the solar system is _____?
Answer: Jupiter
Explanation: Jupiter is the largest planet by mass and volume in the Solar System.
Q56. A rocket needs the speed of to escape from earth’s gravity?
Answer: 7 miles per second
Explanation: Escape velocity for Earth is approximately 11.2 km/s (≈7 mi/s).
Q57. Acceleration caused by gravity is?
Answer: 32 feet per second²
Explanation: Acceleration due to gravity on Earth is 32 ft/s² (≈9.8 m/s²).
Q58. Sunlight is composed of ?
Answer: Seven colors
Explanation: Sunlight is white light made up of seven visible colors (ROYGBIV).
Q59. Which are irregular shape solid objects made up of rocks and metals?
Answer: Asteroids
Explanation: Asteroids are rocky and metallic bodies of irregular shapes orbiting the Sun.
Q60. The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon/Satellites?
Answer: Saturn
Explanation: Saturn currently holds the record for the largest number of natural satellites (moons) among planets in the Solar System.
Q61. Which is the coldest planet in the Solar System?
Answer: Uranus
Explanation: Uranus has the lowest average temperature among the planets due to its minimal internal heat and great distance from the Sun.
Q62. The study of heavenly bodies is called ______?
Answer: Astronomy
Explanation: Astronomy is the scientific study of stars, planets, and other celestial objects.
Q63. The theory stating that new matter is always created to fill the space left by the Universe is called?
Answer: Steady State
Explanation: Steady State theory suggests continuous creation of matter to maintain constant density as the Universe expands.
Q64. The outermost layer of the sun is called?
Answer: Corona
Explanation: The Sun’s corona is its outermost layer visible during a solar eclipse.
Q65. The nearest planet to the Earth is ______?
Answer: Venus
Explanation: Venus is the closest planet to Earth during its orbit.
Q66. Tropical cyclone becomes a hurricane at speeds more than _____?
Answer: 74 mph
Explanation: A tropical cyclone is classified as a hurricane when wind speeds exceed 74 mph (≈119 km/h).
Q67. Which direction does wind flow around areas of high pressure in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer: Clockwise direction
Explanation: Due to the Coriolis effect, winds around high-pressure systems rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
Q68. The SI unit of energy is?
Answer: Joule
Explanation: The Joule (J) is the SI unit of energy, work, or heat.
Q69. Bakelite is a _____?
Answer: Insulator
Explanation: Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic and a good electrical insulator.
Q70. The destruction of Tsunami is measured by its _____?
Answer: Height
Explanation: Tsunami damage is largely proportional to its wave height when it reaches land.
Q71. If a ship travels from freshwater to a sea or ocean, it will?
Answer: Rise a little Higher
Explanation: Saltwater is denser than freshwater, making the ship float slightly higher.
Q72. The age of the earth is __________?
Answer: 4.54
Q73. A chronometer measures ____?
Answer: Time
Explanation: A chronometer is a highly accurate time-measuring device, historically used in navigation to determine precise time and calculate longitude at sea.
Q74. What is the Circumference of Earth?
Answer: 40,075 km
Explanation: The circumference of Earth is the total distance around the planet at the equator, which is approximately 40,075 kilometers.
Q75. 1 BTU is equal to _____ Joules.
Answer: 1055 Joules
Explanation: BTU (British Thermal Unit) is a unit of heat energy, and 1 BTU is approximately equal to 1055 Joules in the SI system.
Q76. Which part of the atmosphere is near to earth?
Answer: Troposphere
Explanation: The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere where humans live and where most weather events such as clouds, rain, and storms occur.
Q77. The first ever Nobel Prize in the field of Physics was awarded to _____?
Answer: Wilhelm Roentgen
Explanation: Wilhelm Roentgen received the first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901 for his discovery of X-rays.
Q78. The most brightest planet is ______?
Answer: Venus
Explanation: Venus appears very bright because its thick cloud cover reflects a large amount of sunlight, making it the brightest planet visible from Earth.
Q79. Anemometer is the instrument used for measurement of ____?
Answer: Wind Speed
Explanation: An anemometer is a device used to measure the speed of wind, which is important in meteorology and weather forecasting.
Q80. Which planet has the shortest day?
Answer: Jupiter
Explanation: Jupiter has the shortest day among all planets because it rotates very rapidly on its axis, completing one rotation in about 10 hours.
To Take Test
Stage-03
Q81. Which is the hottest planet in our solar system?
Answer: Venus
Explanation: Venus has a thick atmosphere rich in CO₂ that traps heat, making it hotter than Mercury.
Q82. The diameter of Jupiter is eleven times the diameter of ______?
Answer: Earth
Explanation: Jupiter’s diameter is about 11 times that of Earth.
Q83. To every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction. This is the statement of ____?
Answer: Newton’s Third Law of Motion
Explanation: Forces occur in action-reaction pairs as described by Newton’s Third Law.
Q84. E=mc² what is C?
Answer: Velocity of light
Explanation: In Einstein’s equation, c represents the speed of light in vacuum (~3 × 10⁸ m/s).
Q85. How hot is a lightning bolt compared to the surface of the sun?
Answer: 5 times hotter
Explanation: Lightning can reach ~30,000 K, about 5 times hotter than the Sun’s surface (~6,000 K).
Q86. Which planet moves fastest around the sun?
Answer: Mercury
Explanation: Mercury is closest to the Sun, so it has the highest orbital speed.
Q87. 10¹² is _____?
Answer: Tera
Explanation: “Tera” denotes 10¹² in the metric system.
Q88. Formula of Current is (I)?
Answer: I = V/R
Explanation: Ohm’s law: current equals voltage divided by resistance.
Q89. In drop forging, forging is done by dropping _____?
Answer: A weight on hammer to produce the requisite impact
Explanation: Drop forging shapes metal by repeated hammer impacts.
Q90. Stamping is the process of _______?
Answer: Shaping thin sheets by pressing them against a form
Explanation: Stamping presses or cuts metal sheets into shapes using dies.
Q91. Which key is used for light duty work?
Answer: Saddle key
Explanation: Saddle key are used for light-duty work on shafts, providing simple and easy attachment for transmitting small amounts of torque.
Q92. Residual stresses are present in ______?
Answer: All (Forged, cold-rolled, and cast shafts)
Explanation: Forged, cold-rolled, and cast shafts can all have residual stresses from manufacturing.
Q93. Maximum surface hardness is attained by ______?
Answer: Nitriding
Explanation: Nitriding adds nitrogen to the metal surface to increase hardness.
Q94. The force of friction between two bodies in contact is ______?
Answer: Independent of the apparent area of contact
Explanation: Friction depends mainly on the normal force, not the contact area.
Q95. Gear tooth vernier is used to measure _______ of tooth.
Answer: Pitch line thickness
Explanation: Gear tooth vernier measures thickness at the gear tooth pitch line.
Q96. All of the following devices can be used for testing the straightness of a surface, except?
Answer: Spirit level
Explanation: Spirit levels measure leveling, not precise straightness.
Q97. V-block is used in a workshop to check _____?
Answer: Roundness of a cylindrical block
Explanation: V-blocks hold cylindrical objects for checking roundness and alignment.
Q98. The amount of moisture in air can be measured by ______?
Answer: Sling psychrometer
Explanation: Measures relative humidity using wet and dry bulb thermometers.
Q99. The measurement of a speed of a rotating shaft by means of an electric tachometer is a ______?
Answer: Tertiary measurement
Explanation: Tertiary measurement refers to determining a quantity indirectly using an instrument like an electric tachometer, which can measure the shaft speed without physical contact.
Q100. Lifting magnets are used as material handling devices for ______?
Answer: All of the above (Tubes, pig iron, and billets.)
Explanation: Lifting magnets are used to handle metallic materials like tubes, pig iron, and billets.
Q101. Which of the following is not directly related to the phenomenon of evaporation?
Answer: Volume of the liquid
Explanation: Evaporation depends on surface area, temperature, and airflow, not liquid volume.
Q102. Environmental errors may be due to changes in ______?
Answer: Any one of these parameters
Explanation: Humidity, pressure, temperature, and wind can affect measurements.
Q103. Which of the following physical quantities is not a vector?
Answer: Mass
Explanation: Mass is scalar; acceleration, momentum, and impulse are vector quantities.
Q104. The errors which form inexperience of the observer are known as ______?
Answer: Personal errors
Explanation: Personal errors occur due to observer’s lack of experience or bias.
Q105. One BTU is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of _____?
Answer: One pound of water through 1°F
Explanation: By definition, 1 BTU = energy to raise 1 lb of water by 1°F.
Q106. For complete burning of 1 kg of carbon, the air required will be about _____?
Answer: 11.6 kg
Explanation: Complete combustion of carbon requires ~11.6 kg of air per kg of carbon.
Q107. Second law of thermodynamics defines ______?
Answer: Entropy
Explanation: It states that entropy of an isolated system always increases.
Q108. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
Answer: Volume
Explanation: Extensive properties depend on system size; volume changes with quantity.
Q109. Chances of occurrence of cavitation are high if ______?
Answer: Local pressure falls below the vapor pressure
Explanation: Cavitation occurs when liquid vaporizes at low pressure regions.
Q110. A pelton wheel is ideally suited for ______?
Answer: High head and low discharge
Explanation: Pelton wheels are designed for high-pressure, low-flow water applications.
×