Petroleum Engineering & Materials Science Questions PDF

Q1: Where is the natural gas found?
Answer: Above the petroleum oil

Q2: What is the common name given to petroleum oil?
Answer: Black Gold

Q3: During the drilling of an oil well, which product is extracted first?
Answer: Natural Gas

Q4: Which process is used to separate different hydrocarbon compounds from petroleum?
Answer: Fractional Distillation

Q5: Till what temperature is crude petroleum heated during fractional distillation?
Answer: 400–500°C

Q6: Which gas is formed when coal is heated in the absence of air?
Answer: Coal Gas

Q7: Approximately how many different substances are found in coal tar?
Answer: About 10,000

Q8: What is the process by which coal is formed in nature called?
Answer: Carbonization

Q9: What is the main component of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)?
Answer: Butane and Isobutane

Q10: Coal gas is mainly used for?
Answer: Heating, Lighting, and Powering Engines

Q11: Petroleum is mainly formed from the remains of?
Answer: Aquatic Plants and Animals

Q12: Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are examples of?
Answer: Exhaustible Natural Resources

Q13: Which type of coal has the lowest carbon content?
Answer: Lignite

Q14: During combustion, fuel combines with which element?
Answer: Oxygen

Q15: Why is kerosene preferred over petrol in oil lamps?
Answer: It is cheaper and less volatile

Q16: Which fuel emits more smoke and ash on burning?
Answer: Solid Fuel

Q17: Incomplete combustion of fuel mainly produces?
Answer: Carbon Monoxide (CO)

Q18: What is the drawdown test used for?
Answer: Measuring reservoir performance during petroleum production

Q19: What is pseudo pressure?
Answer: A gas flow parameter used in natural gas reservoir calculations

Q20: What does the octane number indicate?
Answer: The knocking resistance of gasoline

Q21: The proper arrangement of petroleum fractions in order of decreasing boiling points is?
Answer: Lubricating Oil > Diesel > Petrol > LPG

Q22: Which of the following is the easiest to crack?
Answer: Paraffins

Q23: Which is not an important refinery process for upgrading lubricating oil?
Answer: Deoiling

Q24: Testing of knocking characteristics of petrofuels is done in which engine?
Answer: CFR (Co-operative Fuel Research) Engine

Q25: The bottom-most product from the vacuum crude distillation unit is called?
Answer: Residuum

Q26: Which chloride impurity in crude petroleum produces the maximum HCl during distillation?
Answer: Magnesium Chloride

Q27: Aniline point is the temperature at which?
Answer: Equal volumes of aniline and the test sample are completely miscible

Q28: Which petroleum product has the maximum API gravity?
Answer: Petrol

Q29: Gas oil, diesel oil, and heavy fuel oil belong to which fraction?
Answer: Heavy Distillates

Q30: Illuminating characteristics of kerosene are expressed by its?
Answer: Luminosity Number

Q31. Smoke point of kerosene is the maximum height of flame (in mm) without causing smoking when burnt in a standard lamp.
Answer: C

Q32. Catalytic cracking of heavier petroleum fraction is done mainly to produce:
Answer: Diesel oil

Q33. Which of the following has the lowest cetane number?
Answer: Aromatics

Q34. Which petroleum constituent is responsible for ash formation?
Answer: Organometallic compounds

Q35. CnH2n is the general formula for:
Answer: Both olefins and naphthenes

Q36. Petroleum is:
Answer: Optically active

Q37. Which is NOT an important property of fuel oil/furnace oil?
Answer: Aniline point

Q38. Correct statement about octane number:
Answer: Branched chain paraffins have higher octane number than straight chain paraffins

Q39. Fuel oil is subjected to visbreaking to reduce its:
Answer: All of the above

Q40. Main aim of cracking is to produce:
Answer: Gasoline

Q41. Molecular weight of crude petroleum is around:
Answer: 1500

Q42. Catalyst used in catalytic reforming is:
Answer: Platinum on alumina

Q43. Ethyl mercaptan is a:
Answer: Sulphur compound

Q44. Pour point and freezing point are equal for:
Answer: Water

Q45. Which of the following is a type of sedimentary rock?

Ans. All of the above

Q46. Which rock favors petroleum formation?
Ans. Sedimentary rock

Q47. DLS stands for:
Ans. Dogleg Severity

Q48. RIH stands for:
Ans. Run in Hole

Q49. A source rock too immature to generate petroleum is called:
Ans. Potential Source Rock

Q50. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. A pale color of petroleum product indicates lower viscosity

Q51. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. Pyrolysis is a mild thermal cracking process

Q52. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. Hydrocarbons of low specific gravity possess maximum thermal energy per unit volume

Q53. Additive property of lube oil:
Ans. Viscosity

Q54. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. All alkylation processes use very high temperature (>1000°C)

Q55. Correct statement regarding catalytic cracking:
Ans. All A., B. and C.

Q56. Correct statement regarding thermal cracking:
Ans. At low pressure, yield of lighter hydrocarbons is more

Q57. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. Rate of decomposition of olefins in catalytic cracking is slightly slower than thermal cracking

Q58. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. High viscosity index means large change in viscosity with temperature

Q59. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. Heavier petrofuels have higher GCV on weight basis but lower on volume basis

Q60. Correct statement:
Ans. Branched chain paraffins have higher octane number than straight chain paraffins

Q61. Correct statement:
Ans. Coking tendency increases with molecular weight

Q62. Correct statement:
Ans. Char value test determines suitability of kerosene as fuel & illuminant

Q63. Pick out the wrong statement:
Ans. High viscosity index means large change in viscosity with temperature

Q64. Waxy crudes are treated mainly to:
Ans. Depress pour point

Q65. Maximum use of petroleum coke:
Ans. Carbon electrode manufacture

Q66. Crude oil is pumped by:
Ans. Centrifugal pump

Q67. Catalyst used in isomerisation:
Ans. Aluminium chloride

Q68. Hydrocarbons with minimum smoking tendency:
Ans. Paraffins

Q69. Not a significant test for gasoline:
Ans. Viscosity

Q70. Natural gasoline is produced:
Ans. By natural gas stripping

Q71. 95% LPG evaporates at:
Ans. 2°C

Q72. Most undesirable component in kerosene:
Ans. Aromatics

Q73. Aniline point of diesel indicates:
Ans. Aromatic content

Q74. Highest gum forming tendency in gasoline:
Ans. Diolefins

Q75. Operating condition in electrical dehydrators:
Ans. 6.5 kgf/cm² & 95°C

Q76. Maximum API gravity fraction:
Ans. Petrol

Q77. Deoiling of wax is done by:
Ans. Sweating process

Q78. Sulphur content trend in crude distillation:
Ans. Increases from light to heavy fractions

Q79. Crude petroleum oil is a:
Ans. Both A & B

Q80. Specific gravity indicates:
Ans. Hydrocarbon type (aromatic/paraffinic)

Q81. Solvent in duo-sol extraction:
Ans. Propane & phenol-cresol mixture

Q82. Endothermic reaction:
Ans. Dehydrogenation of naphthene to aromatics

Q83. Catalytic reforming conditions:
Ans. 15–45 kgf/cm² & 450–550°C

Q84. Lowest viscosity fraction:
Ans. Naphtha

Q85. Sulphur in gasoline causes:
Ans. Corrosion

Q86. High viscosity oil indicates:
Ans. High flash & fire point

Q87. Highest API gravity fraction:
Ans. Gasoline

Q88. Smoke volatility index equals:
Ans. Smoke point + 0.42 × (% distilled at 204°C)

Q89. Diesel index is determined by:
Ans. Test engine

Q90. Catalyst in catalytic cracking:
Ans. Silica–alumina

Q91. Flash point test for gasoline uses:
Ans. Abel apparatus

Q92. Main constituent of natural gas:
Ans. CH₄

Q93. Vacuum distillation is used because:
Ans. Prevent thermal decomposition of heavy fractions

Q94. Mercaptans are:
Ans. Sulphur compounds

Q95. Aniline point indicates:
Ans. Aromatic content

Q96. Pour point equals freezing point for:
Ans. Water

Q97. Difference between GCV & NCV:
Ans. 600–750 kcal/kg

Q98. Characterisation factor 12.5 means:
Ans. Paraffinic crude

Q99. Doctor’s solution:
Ans. Sodium plumbite

Q100. Udex solvent:
Ans. Aqueous diethylene glycol (10% water)

Q101. Straight run petrol vs alcohol:
Ans. Lower octane number

Q102. Bitumen softening point test:
Ans. Ball and Ring test

Q103. Olefins crack faster in catalytic cracking by:
Ans. 200–300 times

Q104. Process not involving cracking:
Ans. None of these

Q105. Catalyst for desulphurisation:
Ans. Bauxite

Q106. Diesel index formula:
Ans. (°API × Aniline point °F) / 100

Q107. Maximum C/H ratio:
Ans. Heavy fuel oil

Q108. Stabilisation of gasoline:
Ans. Removal of dissolved gases

Q109. Naphthenic acid formula:
Ans. CnH2n-2O2

Q110. Bottom product of atmospheric distillation:
Ans. Reduced crude

Q111. Smoke point indicates:
Ans. Aromatic content

Q112. LPG composition:
Ans. Propane & butane

Q113. Removal of light fractions:
Ans. Stabilisation

Q114. Deasphalting solvent:
Ans. Propane

Q115. Main product of cracking:
Ans. Gasoline

Q116. Hydrofining purpose:
Ans. Removal of sulphur

Q117. Best kerosene component:
Ans. n-paraffins

Q118. Origin of petroleum:
Ans. Both A & B sources

Q119. LSHS is:
Ans. Low sulphur furnace oil (all A, B & C)

Q120. LPG yield from crude:
Ans. 1–1.5%

Q121. Performance number relates to:
Ans. Knocking tendency

Q122. Petroleum coke use:
Ans. Carbon electrode manufacture

Q123. Octane number (India vs USA):
Ans. 87 & 94

Q124. Preferred lube oil for aircraft engine:
Ans. High viscosity index lube oil

Q125. Which of the following is the most suitable feed for platforming process (reforming)?
Ans. Naphtha

Q126. The condensate obtained on compression of wet natural gas is termed as:
Ans. Natural gasoline

Q127. In catalytic alkylation, higher iso-butane to olefin ratio gives:
Ans. Higher yield

Q128. Solvent used in Edeleanu process is:
Ans. Liquid SO₂

Q129. Reid vapour pressure of gasoline is a measure of its:
Ans. Vapour locking tendency

Q130. Correct statement about catalytic polymerisation:
Ans. Both A and B

Q131. Process producing gaseous unsaturated hydrocarbons & aromatics (benzene, toluene):
Ans. Pyrolysis

Q132. Cetane number of diesel used in trucks may be about:
Ans. 50

Q133. With increase in density, viscosity of petroleum products:
Ans. Increases

Q134. Visbreaking process is used mainly for making:
Ans. Fuel oil

Q135. Mercaptans are added to LPG to:
Ans. Assist in detecting leakage

Q136. Research octane number refers to:
Ans. High octane number motor fuels

Q137. Catalyst used in fluidised bed catalytic cracking:
Ans. Silica-alumina (all A, B & C if options combined)

Q138. Aniline point is the:
Ans. Measure of aromatic content (both A & B)

Q139. Smoke point increases from 15 mm to 25 mm after SO₂ treatment due to removal of:
Ans. Aromatics

Q140. Most commonly used feedstock for reforming reactor:
Ans. Straight run gasoline

Q141. Salty crude contains more than:
Ans. 15 kg NaCl per 1000 barrels

Q142. Octane number measures:
Ans. Resistance to knock

Q143. Hydrofining uses hydrogen to:
Ans. Both A & B (desulphurisation + sweetening)

Q144. Alkylation:
Ans. Olefins combine with iso-paraffins

Q145. Illuminating property of kerosene is expressed by:
Ans. Smoke point

Q146. Pressure in high pressure primary tower:
Ans. 6 kg/cm²

Q147. Indian crude oil is:
Ans. Mixed base

Q148. Complete removal of mercaptans from gasoline is done by:
Ans. Unisol process

Q149. Lowest flash point:
Ans. Petrol

Q150. High aniline point indicates:
Ans. Highly paraffinic nature

Q151. Flash point of motor gasoline:
Ans. About 10°C

Q152. Highest viscosity:
Ans. Fuel oil

Q153. Viscosity index indicates:
Ans. Variation of viscosity with temperature

Q154. Visbreaking reduces:
Ans. Viscosity, pour point & pressure drop

Q155. Asphalt & wax are produced by:
Ans. Mixed base crude

Q156. Isomerisation converts:
Ans. n-paraffins to iso-paraffins

Q157. Dry well contains:
Ans. Only natural gas

Q158. Solutizer sweetening uses:
Ans. Both A & B

Q159. Deasphalting solvent:
Ans. Propane

Q160. Cetane number of diesel must be ≥:
Ans. 45

Q161. Boiling range of gasoline indicates:
Ans. All A, B & C

Q162. Furfural extraction is used for:
Ans. Lubricating oil upgrading

Q163. Highest octane number:
Ans. Aromatics

Q164. Process consuming hydrogen:
Ans. None of these

Q165. Catalyst in catalytic reforming:
Ans. Platinum on alumina

Q166. Grease penetration test measures:
Ans. Stiffness

Q167. Flash point indicates:
Ans. Momentary combustion temperature

Q168. Not important for lubricating oil upgrading:
Ans. Deoiling

Q169. Petroleum is:
Ans. Optically active

Q170. Maximum sulphur content:
Ans. Fuel oil

Q171. Colour of gasoline indicates:
Ans. Gum forming tendency & refining quality

Q172. Conversion of hydrocarbons to aromatics:
Ans. Catalytic reforming

Q173. Isomerisation converts:
Ans. Paraffins to iso-paraffins

Q174. Naphtha yield:
Ans. About 12%

Q175. Older crude petroleum is:
Ans. All A, B & C

Q176. Dewaxing solvent must NOT be:
Ans. Both A & B (undesirable properties)

Q177. Solutizer agent in sweetening:
Ans. Potassium isobutyrate

Q178. Reid apparatus air to liquid ratio:
Ans. 4:1

Q179. Transformer oil test NOT done:
Ans. Aniline point

Q180. Petrolatum is:
Ans. Microcrystalline wax + hydrocarbon oil mixture

Q181. Edeleanu process reduces:
Ans. Aromatics

Q182. Dewaxing solvent:
Ans. MEK

Q183. Not a sulphur compound:
Ans. Pyrroles

Q184. Pour point is:
Ans. Multiple of 5°F

Q185. LPG density is about:
Ans. Half of water

Q186. Higher reforming pressure:
Ans. None of these

Q187. Asphaltic crude is:
Ans. Naphthenic base crude

Q188. Deasphalting solvent:
Ans. Propane

Q189. Smoke point definition:
Ans. Maximum flame height without smoke

Q190. Minimum sulphur product:
Ans. Naphtha

Q191. Ethyl mercaptan is:
Ans. Sulphur compound

Q192. Hydrogen recycling purpose:
Ans. Minimise coke formation

Q193. Electrical desalting removes:
Ans. Oleophobic impurities

Q194. Higher specific gravity means:
Ans. More aromatics

Q195. Aviation turbine fuel boiling point closest to:
Ans. Kerosene

Q196. Aromatics in petrol:
Ans. Increase octane number

Q197. CFR engine is used for:
Ans. Knock testing

Q198. Barisol solvent:
Ans. Benzol + ethylene dichloride

Q199. Sour crude means:
Ans. Sulphur bearing crude

Q200. Quinoline is:
Ans. Nitrogen compound

Q201. Water content increases conductivity:
Ans. Increases

Q202. TEL is added to gasoline to:
Ans. Increase octane number

Q203. Highest lead susceptibility fuel:
Ans. Straight run gasoline

Q204. TEL addition:
Ans. ~3 cc per gallon

Q205. Oil well depth:
Ans. 1.5 to 4.5 km

Q206. Reforming feed order:
Ans. Virgin naphtha > catalytic naphtha > coking naphtha

Q207. Deoiling method:
Ans. Sweating

Q208. Petroleum coke production:
Ans. Cracking

Q209. Olefins:
Ans. Reactive hydrocarbons (not none)

Q210. Polymerisation feed:
Ans. Cracked gases (C2–C4 olefins)

Q211. FCC gasoline octane number:
Ans. 92

Q212. Cetane improver:
Ans. Ethyl nitrate / acetone

Q213. Catalytic cracking vs thermal:
Ans. Higher petrol yield

Q214. Most used cracking process:
Ans. Fluidised bed catalytic cracking

Q215. Aromatics in petrol:
Ans. Increase octane number

Q216. Main aim of cracking:
Ans. Gasoline production

Q217. Dearomatization increases:
Ans. Smoke point

Q218. Visbreaking:
Ans. Produces low viscosity fuel oil

Q219. Flash point apparatus:
Ans. Pensky Martens

Q220. Polymerisation catalyst:
Ans. Both A & B

Q221. Hydrogen content in crude:
Ans. ~15%

Q222. Wax sweating limit oil content:
Ans. 15%

Q223. High flash point fuel:
Ans. Heavy fuel oil

Q224. Dewaxing solvent:
Ans. Both B & C

Q225. Naphthene formula:
Ans. CnH2n

Q226. MTBE produced from:
Ans. Isobutylene + methanol

Q227. Vacuum distillation pressure:
Ans. 30–80 mmHg

Q228. Paraffins in lube oil:
Ans. High viscosity index

Q229. Platforming process:
Ans. Fixed bed non-regenerative

Q230. Aromatic molecular weight effect on kerosene smoking:
Ans. Decreases

Q231. Platforming type:
Ans. Fixed bed catalytic reforming

Q232. Aviation fuel aromatics:
Ans. All A, B & C

Q233. Petrol vs kerosene:
Ans. Aromatics desirable in petrol

Q234. Petroleum formation factor not dependent on:
Ans. pH of soil

Q235. Maximum atomisation viscosity:
Ans. 25 cSt

Q236. Aromatics have highest:
Ans. Octane number

Q237. Classification basis:
Ans. Composition

Q238. Bitumen production:
Ans. Aeration

Q239. Distillation trend:
Ans. All A, B & C

Q240. Iso-octane:
Ans. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane

Q241. Cetane number measures:
Ans. Ignition delay

Q242. Water in crude oil:
Ans. Up to 25%

Material Science

Q1: What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials?
Answer: Atoms

Q2: What are the major classes of engineering materials?
Answer: Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

Q3: What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?
Answer: Ferromagnetic materials

Q4: What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?
Answer: Metal Matrix composites

Q5: What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?
Answer: Ceramic

Q6: Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” means?
Answer: part

Q7: The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called?
Answer: Polymers

Q8: What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components do not have by themselves?
Answer: Composite

Q9: What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?
Answer: Periodic Table

Q10: What physical property refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling?
Answer: Melting point

Q11: What physical property refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized?
Answer: Curie point

Q12: What physical property refers to weight gain (%) in a polymer after immersion in water?
Answer: Water absorption

Q13: What physical property refers to rate of heat flow per unit area per unit temperature gradient?
Answer: Thermal conductivity

Q14: What physical property refers to maximum voltage an insulating material can withstand without breakdown?
Answer: Dielectric strength

Q15: What physical property refers to heat required to raise temperature of unit mass by 1°C compared to water?
Answer: Specific heat

Q16: What physical property refers to temperature at which polymer under load shows deflection?
Answer: Heat distortion temperature

Q17: What mechanical property refers to stress at fracture in tension test?
Answer: Stress rupture strength

Q18: What mechanical property refers to resistance to plastic deformation?
Answer: Hardness

Q19: What parameter is defined as temperature where toughness drops below 15 ft-lb?
Answer: Nil ductility temperature

Q20: What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen until failure?
Answer: Fatigue strength (Endurance limit)

Q21: What dimensional property refers to deviation from edge straightness?
Answer: Camber

Q22: What dimensional property refers to wavelike surface variation?
Answer: Waviness

Q23: Wood is composed of cellulose bonded by which polymer?
Answer: Lignin

Q24: What is a polymer process forming chain with two different monomers?
Answer: Copolymerization

Q25: What is the generic name of nylon?
Answer: Polyamide

Q26: By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least ____ elongation in tensile test and returns to original shape after load removal.
Answer: 100%

Q27: What is a method of forming polymer sheets into 3D shapes using heat and vacuum?
Answer: Thermoforming

Q28: What process forms continuous shapes by forcing molten polymer through a die?
Answer: Extrusion

Q29: What property refers to resistance to chemical or electrochemical deterioration?
Answer: Corrosion resistance

Q30: What property refers to ordered 3D arrangement of monomer molecules in polymers?
Answer: Stereospecificity

Q31: What is the amount of energy required to fracture a material?
Answer: Impact strength

Q32: What is a time-dependent permanent strain under constant stress?
Answer: Creep

Q33: Stress at which material shows specified deviation from proportionality?
Answer: Yield strength

Q34: Greatest stress a material can withstand without deviation from stress-strain linearity is called?
Answer: Proportional limit

Q35: Maximum stress below which material can endure infinite cycles is called?
Answer: Endurance limit

Q36: A substance that attracts iron pieces is called?
Answer: Magnet

Q37: Which is a natural magnet?
Answer: Lodestone

Q38: Resistance of material to plastic deformation is called?
Answer: Hardness

Q39: Materials with permeability slightly less than free space are called?
Answer: Diamagnetic materials

Q40: Materials with permeability slightly greater than free space are called?
Answer: Paramagnetic materials

Q41: Materials with very high permeability are called?
Answer: Ferromagnetic materials

Q42: ASTM defines plastic as a material that is organic, moldable, and solid in final state. It is called?
Answer: Plastic

Q43: Strong bonding in polymers like epoxies is called?
Answer: Cross linking

Q44: Polymer without additives or blending is called?
Answer: Homopolymer

Q45: Polymer made of two different monomers is called?
Answer: Copolymer (Interpolymer)

Q46: Polymer with rubber-like properties is called?
Answer: Elastomer

Q47: Alloy of iron and carbon within specific limits is called?
Answer: Steel

Q48: Steel refining process involving vacuum arc remelting is called?
Answer: VAR (Vacuum Arc Remelting)

Q49: Process where molten metal is poured through tundish into mold is called?
Answer: Vacuum Induction Melting

Q50: Steel where carbon is main hardening element is called?
Answer: Carbon steel

Q51: Steel containing 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is called?
Answer: Eutectoid steel

Q52: Water-hardened tool steels belong to which group?
Answer: Group W

Q53: Molybdenum high-speed steels belong to which group?
Answer: Group M

Q54: Steels used for axles and gears are called?
Answer: Medium-carbon steel

Q55: Galvanized steel is coated with?
Answer: Zinc

Q56: ASTM tensile test for plastics is?
Answer: D638

Q57: ASTM compression test for plastics is?
Answer: D695

Q58: ASTM shear test for plastics is?
Answer: D732

Q59: ASTM steel tension test standard is?
Answer: A370

Q60: Low-quality steel with M suffix is called?
Answer: Merchant quality

Q61: Removal of oxides from steel using acids is called?
Answer: Pickling

Q62: Purpose of molybdenum in steel?
Answer: Increases high-temperature strength and hardness

Q63: Which statement is NOT true?
Answer: About 10% of earth’s crust is iron

Q64: Prefix X in steel designation means?
Answer: Composition varies from normal limits

Q65: Prefix E in steel designation means?
Answer: Electric furnace steel

Q66: Suffix B in steel designation means?
Answer: Boron alloy steel

Q67: Tin mill steel without coating is called?
Answer: Black plate

Q68: Alloy used in heating elements (high resistance) is?
Answer: Nichrome

Q69: Stainless steel requires minimum how much chromium?
Answer: 10%

Q70: Which cast iron is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?
Answer: Gray iron

Q71: Which cast iron is heat-treated for ductility?
Answer: Malleable iron

Q72: Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?
Answer: White iron

Q73: What is the general purpose, oldest and widely used cast iron?
Answer: Gray iron

Q74: What is the effect of manganese in cast iron?
Answer: Combines with sulfur and increases hardness

Q75: What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?
Answer: Deoxidizes molten cast iron

Q76: What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?
Answer: Improves fluidity and ductility (at low %), increases hardness at high %

Q77: About how much iron is present in Earth’s crust?
Answer: 5%

Q78: Advantage of quench hardening is?
Answer: All of the choices

Q79: Lowest-temperature diffusion hardening process without quench is?
Answer: Nitriding

Q80: Which statement is true except one?
Answer: Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering

Q81: Requirement for hardening steel is?
Answer: All of the choices

Q82: Study of production and properties of metals is called?
Answer: Metallurgy

Q83: Earth and stone mixed with iron oxides is called?
Answer: Gangue

Q84: Coal burned in oxygen-poor environment is called?
Answer: Coke

Q85: Most common alloying element in copper is?
Answer: Zinc

Q86: Case hardening process that increases carbon at surface is?
Answer: Carburizing

Q87: Heating hardened steel below lower critical temperature then cooling is?
Answer: Tempering

Q88: Intimate mixture of two or more phases with definite composition is?
Answer: Eutectoid

Q89: Most undesirable element in steel is?
Answer: Phosphorus

Q90: Heat treatment case hardening process in sealed box is?
Answer: Nitriding

Q91: Penetrator used in Brinell hardness test is?
Answer: 10 mm steel ball

Q92: Ratio of maximum load to original cross-sectional area is?
Answer: Tensile strength

Q93: Ratio of stress to strain in elastic region is?
Answer: Modulus of elasticity

Q94: Measure of rigidity is?
Answer: Modulus of elasticity

Q95: Increase in gauge length after fracture is called?
Answer: Percent elongation

Q96: Impurity causing red shortness in steel is?
Answer: Sulfur

Q97: Process of hardening steel surface by rapid cooling is?
Answer: Flame hardening

Q98: Common reinforcement in polymer composites is?
Answer: Glass fiber

Q99: Which fluids conduct electricity?
Answer: Electrolytes

Q100: Local corrosion forming cavities is called?
Answer: Pitting corrosion

Q101: A. Expoliation B. Corrosion fatigue C. Scraping D. Fretting — (refers to item 103)
Answer: Expoliation

Q102: What corrosion occurs under organic coatings as fine wavy hairlines?
Answer: Filiform corrosion

Q103: What refers to deterioration due to oscillatory relative motion in corrosive environment?
Answer: Fretting corrosion

Q104: Indicate the false statement about corrosion.
Answer: The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode

Q105: Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with carbon less than ____ percent.
Answer: 2%

Q106: Indicate false statement about stainless steel.
Answer: Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than carbon steels

Q107: Major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels are?
Answer: Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

Q108: Electrical resistance of stainless steel can be up to ____ times carbon steel.
Answer: 15

Q109: What refers to shape formed by solidifying liquid in a mold?
Answer: Casting

Q110: Which is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
Answer: Machined metal holding blocks

Q111: Cast iron with spheroidal graphite is called?
Answer: Ductile iron

Q112: Process making glass-reinforced shapes by pulling resin-impregnated glass strands through a die?
Answer: Continuous pultrusion

Q113: Thermosetting polymers from alcohols and acids are called?
Answer: Alkyds

Q114: AISI-SAE designation for nickel 3.50 alloy steel is?
Answer: 23XX

Q115: AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized steel is?
Answer: 12XX

Q116: AISI stands for?
Answer: American Iron and Steel Institute

Q117: SAE stands for?
Answer: Society of Automotive Engineers

Q118: ASTM stands for?
Answer: American Society for Testing and Materials

Q119: Chromium range of ferritic stainless steel is?
Answer: 12% to 18%

Q120: Group H steels are used in temperature range?
Answer: 600°C to 1100°C

Q121: Primary alloying element NOT in Group H steels is?
Answer: Cobalt

Q122: Chrome-molybdenum steels contain molybdenum about?
Answer: 0.20%

Q123: Chrome-vanadium steels contain vanadium about?
Answer: 0.15% to 0.30%

Q124: Manganese steel contains manganese about?
Answer: 11% to 14%

Q125: Wear resistance due to ability to _____.
Answer: Strain hardening

Q126: Special chrome stainless steels contain chromium about?
Answer: 11% to 17%

Q127: Surface alteration process to harden steel is called?
Answer: Case hardening

Q128: Ability of steel to harden through its center is called?
Answer: Hardenability

Q129: Transformation temperature of austenite to pearlite is?
Answer: 1333°F

Q130: Alpha iron becomes paramagnetic above?
Answer: 770°C

Q131: Structure formed near knee of transformation curve?
Answer: Pearlite

Q132: Iron stable from room temperature to 1670°F is?
Answer: Alpha iron

Q133: Nitriding requires heating in ammonia for up to?
Answer: 100 hours

Q134: Chief ore of tin is?
Answer: Cassiterite

Q135: Chief ore of zinc is?
Answer: Sphalerite

Q136: Chief ore of titanium is?
Answer: Ilmenite

Q137: Aluminum is derived from mixture of gibbsite and diaspore called?
Answer: Bauxite

Q138: Brass is alloy of?
Answer: Copper and zinc

Q139: Bronze is alloy of?
Answer: Copper and tin

Q140: First digit in wrought aluminum alloy designation indicates?
Answer: Alloy group

Q141: Second digit in aluminum alloy designation indicates?
Answer: Modifications/impurity limits

Q142: Letter F in aluminum alloy means?
Answer: As fabricated

Q143: Following alloys are die-cast EXCEPT?
Answer: Manganese alloys

Q144: Minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50 is?
Answer: 50000 lbf/in²

Q145: Carbon content of wrought iron is?
Answer: Less than 0.1%

Q146: Alnico contains nickel about?
Answer: 14%

Q147: Muntz metal composition is?
Answer: 60% copper and 40% zinc

Q148: Red brass contains zinc about?
Answer: 15%

Q149: Yellow brass contains zinc about?
Answer: 30%

Q150: Indicate false statement.
Answer: Tin is relatively soluble in copper

Q151: Most abundant metal in nature is?
Answer: Aluminum

Q152: False statement about aluminum is?
Answer: It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity

Q153: Iron addition in aluminum does what?
Answer: Reduces hot cracking tendencies in casting

Q154: Copper in aluminum alloy does what?
Answer: Increases strength up to about 12%

Q155: Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets?
Answer: Alnico and Conife

Q156: Portland cement is manufactured from the following elements EXCEPT:
Answer: Asphalt

Q157: What gives the average ratio of stress to strain in nonlinear region?
Answer: Secant modulus

Q158: What test determines hardenability of steel?
Answer: Jominy end-quench test

Q159: What heat treatment converts martensite into pearlite in hypoeutectoid steels?
Answer: Annealing

Q160: Another term for tempering is?
Answer: Drawing or toughening

Q161: All are steel surface hardening processes EXCEPT?
Answer: Annealing

Q162: For metric wire gauge, No. 2 wire diameter is?
Answer: 0.2 mm

Q163: Bus bars are generally used for carrying?
Answer: High electric current

Q164: Interconnections on printed circuit boards are made using?
Answer: Flat flexible conductors

Q165: Yellow brass contains copper about?
Answer: 65%

Q166: Copper alloy used for electrical generator collectors?
Answer: Beryllium copper

Q167: Electrical resistivity of pure copper is?
Answer: 1.71 μΩ-cm

Q168: Resistivity range of resistor material is?
Answer: 50 – 150 μΩ-cm

Q169: Most widely used dielectric material in electronics industry?
Answer: All of the above

Q170: Natural/synthetic rubber-like materials with elastic properties are called?
Answer: Elastomers

Q171: Cellular forms of plastics like polystyrene, polyurethane etc. are called?
Answer: Plastic foams

Q172: Widely used electrical insulator is?
Answer: Paper

Q173: Dielectric strength of unimpregnated cellulose paper is?
Answer: 6 to 12 MV/m

Q174: Most widely known carbide is?
Answer: Silicon carbide

Q175: Class I capacitors dielectric constant up to?
Answer: 100

Q176: Class II capacitors dielectric constant range?
Answer: 1,000 to 10,000

Q177: Most widely used general-purpose coatings are?
Answer: Alkyds

Q178: Glass used in electronics for seals and coatings is?
Answer: Glass

Q179: Glass ceramics are formed by?
Answer: Devitrification below softening point

Q180: Change in magnetic properties due to aging is called?
Answer: Aging index

Q181: Change in resistance due to magnetic field is called?
Answer: Magnetoresistance

Q182: Material used for electromagnetic cores and relays?
Answer: Iron

Q183: Electrical steel is known as?
Answer: Silicon steel

Q184: Highest-frequency ferrite is?
Answer: Garnet

Q185: Material used in LEDs, Gunn diodes, lasers is?
Answer: Gallium arsenide

Q186: Material used in green/red electroluminescent diodes is?
Answer: Gallium phosphide

Q187: Lead compounds are used for?
Answer: All of the above

Q188: Rockwell hardness test uses penetrator type?
Answer: Sphere

Q189: Combination of cutting and scratch test is?
Answer: File hardness test

Q190: Strain energy per unit volume up to yield point is?
Answer: Elastic toughness

Q191: Ceramics typical property EXCEPT one is?
Answer: High thermal conductivity

Q192: Average number of mers in polymer molecule is called?
Answer: Degree of polymerization

Q193: Nickel alloy with 15–20% chromium used for heating elements is?
Answer: Nichrome

Q194: Silicon bronze contains silicon about?
Answer: 3%

Q195: Element added to copper for strength and fatigue resistance?
Answer: Beryllium

Q196: Element added to copper to make it extremely hard?
Answer: Silicon

Q197: Major component of most bronzes is?
Answer: Tin

Q198: Most common alloying element in copper is?
Answer: Zinc

Q199: Property allowing drawing into wires is?
Answer: Ductility

Q200: Force of attraction between surfaces is called?
Answer: Adhesion

Q201: Solids breaking above elastic limit are called?
Answer: Brittle

Q202: Property of particles exerting force is called?
Answer: Charge

Q203: Flow of current under potential difference is?
Answer: Conductance

Q204: Resistance of fluids to flow is?
Answer: Viscosity

Q205: Tendency to return to original shape is?
Answer: Elasticity

Q206: Light emission due to high temperature is?
Answer: Incandescence

Q207: In prism, violet light travels?
Answer: Slower than red

Q208: Resistance to change in motion is?
Answer: Inertia

Q209: Ability to store charge is?
Answer: Capacitance

Q210: Same properties in all directions is?
Answer: Isotropic

Q211: Property determining heat flow direction is?
Answer: Temperature

Q212: Rate of thermal energy flow is?
Answer: Thermal conductivity

Q213: Crystal absorbing light differently in directions is?
Answer: Dichroism

Q214: Emission of radiation under higher frequency light is?
Answer: Fluorescence

Q215: Weakly repelled magnetic material is?
Answer: Diamagnetic

Q216: Decrease of property under repeated stress is?
Answer: Fatigue

Q217: Zero resistance at very low temperature is?
Answer: Superconductivity

Q218: Property determined by number of protons is?
Answer: Atomic number

Q219: Building blocks of engineering materials are?
Answer: Atoms

Q220: Metal combined with other elements is called?
Answer: Alloy

Q221: Metals reinforced by ceramic or other materials usually in fiber form are called?
Answer: Metal Matrix Composites

Q222: Engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called?
Answer: Polymers

Q223: Combination of two or more materials with improved properties is called?
Answer: Composite

Q224: Physical property referring to melting and solidifying temperature is?
Answer: Melting point

Q225: Temperature at which ferromagnetic materials lose magnetism is?
Answer: Curie point

Q226: Weight gain of polymer after water immersion is called?
Answer: Water absorption

Q227: Heat flow per unit area per unit gradient is?
Answer: Thermal conductivity

Q228: Transverse strain to axial strain ratio is?
Answer: Poisson’s ratio

Q229: Maximum voltage without electrical breakdown is?
Answer: Dielectric strength

Q230: Heat required to raise unit mass by 1°C compared to water is?
Answer: Specific heat

Q231: Heat required without phase change is called?
Answer: Sensible heat

Q232: Temperature where polymer deflects under load is?
Answer: Heat distortion temperature

Q233: Stress at fracture in tensile test is?
Answer: Stress rupture strength

Q234: Resistance to plastic deformation is?
Answer: Hardness

Q235: Energy absorbed until fracture is called?
Answer: Impact strength

Q236: Permanent strain under constant stress is?
Answer: Creep

Q237: Stress where deviation from proportionality begins is?
Answer: Yield strength

Q238: Maximum stress for infinite life is?
Answer: Endurance limit

Q239: Straightness deviation in dimensional property is?
Answer: Camber

Q240: Wavy surface variation is called?
Answer: Waviness

Q241: Polymer production using two monomers is?
Answer: Copolymerization

Q242: Nylon belongs to which polymer class?
Answer: Polyamide

Q243: Rubber with high elongation and recovery is defined as?
Answer: Elastomer

Q244: Continuous shaping by forcing molten polymer through die is?
Answer: Extrusion

Q245: Sheet forming using vacuum over heated polymer is?
Answer: Thermoforming

Q246: Resistance to chemical deterioration is?
Answer: Corrosion resistance

Q247: Ordered 3D arrangement of polymer chains is?
Answer: Stereospecificity

Q248: Energy required to fracture unit volume is?
Answer: Impact strength

Q249: Time-dependent deformation under stress is?
Answer: Creep

Q250: Stress where proportionality ends is?
Answer: Proportional limit

Q251: Substance that attracts iron is?
Answer: Magnet

Q252: Natural magnet is?
Answer: Lodestone

Q253: Materials with permeability less than free space are?
Answer: Diamagnetic materials

Q254: Materials with slightly higher permeability than free space are?
Answer: Paramagnetic materials

Q255: Materials with very high permeability are?
Answer: Ferromagnetic materials

Q256: ASTM definition of moldable organic material is?
Answer: Plastic

Q257: Strong bonds in polymers like epoxy are called?
Answer: Cross linking

Q258: Polymer without blending or additives is?
Answer: Homopolymer

Q259: Polymer made of alternating monomers is?
Answer: Copolymer

Q260: Polymer with rubber-like behavior is?
Answer: Elastomer

Q261: Alloy of iron and carbon is?
Answer: Steel

Q262: Vacuum arc remelting is called?
Answer: VAR

Q263: Pouring molten metal through tundish is?
Answer: Vacuum induction melting

Q264: Steel where carbon is main hardening element is?
Answer: Carbon steel

Q265: Steel with 0.8% carbon is?
Answer: Eutectoid steel

Q266: Water-hardened tool steels belong to?
Answer: Group W

Q267: Molybdenum high-speed steels belong to?
Answer: Group M

Q268: Axle and gear steel is?
Answer: Medium carbon steel

Q269: Galvanized steel is coated with?
Answer: Zinc

Q270: ASTM tensile test for plastics is?
Answer: D638

Q271: ASTM compression test is?
Answer: D695

Q272: ASTM shear test is?
Answer: D732

Q273: ASTM steel tension test is?
Answer: A370

Q274: Low quality steel (M suffix) is?
Answer: Merchant quality

Q275: Removal of scale using acid is?
Answer: Pickling

Q276: Purpose of molybdenum in steel is?
Answer: High temperature strength increase

Q277: False statement about iron in crust is?
Answer: 10% of earth crust is iron

Q278: Steel designation prefix X means?
Answer: Composition variation

Q279: Prefix E means?
Answer: Electric furnace steel

Q280: Suffix B means?
Answer: Boron steel

Q281: Tin mill steel without coating is?
Answer: Black plate

Q282: High resistance alloy for heating elements is?
Answer: Nichrome

Q283: Stainless steel minimum chromium is?
Answer: 10%

Q284: Gray iron type high carbon alloy is?
Answer: Gray iron

Q285: Ductile cast iron is?
Answer: Spheroidal graphite iron

Q286: Hard and wear resistant cast iron is?
Answer: White iron

Q287: Oldest widely used cast iron is?
Answer: Gray iron

Q288: Manganese effect in cast iron is?
Answer: Increases hardness

Q289: Aluminum in cast iron acts as?
Answer: Deoxidizer

Q290: Silicon in cast iron does what?
Answer: Increases ductility or hardness depending on %

Q291: Iron content in earth crust is?
Answer: 5%

Q292: Quench hardening advantage is?
Answer: All of the choices

Q293: Low temperature hardening without quench is?
Answer: Nitriding

Q294: False statement about quench hardening is?
Answer: No tempering required

Q295: Steel hardening requirement is?
Answer: All of the choices

Q296: Study of metals production is?
Answer: Metallurgy

Q297: Impure iron ore mixture is?
Answer: Gangue

Q298: Burnt coal in low oxygen is?
Answer: Coke

Q299: Common copper alloying element is?
Answer: Zinc

Q300: Surface carbon increase process is?
Answer: Carburizing

Q301: What is the ratio of maximum load in a tension test to original cross-sectional area?
Answer: Tensile strength

Q302: What is the ratio of stress to strain in elastic range?
Answer: Modulus of elasticity

Q303: What is measure of rigidity?
Answer: Modulus of elasticity

Q304: Greatest stress without deviation from stress-strain linearity is called?
Answer: Proportional limit

Q305: Stress at which deviation from proportionality begins is called?
Answer: Yield strength

Q306: Energy required to fracture a given volume of material is?
Answer: Impact strength

Q307: Time-dependent permanent strain under stress is?
Answer: Creep

Q308: Increase in gauge length after fracture is called?
Answer: Percent elongation

Q309: Resistance to plastic deformation is?
Answer: Hardness

Q310: Maximum stress below which infinite life is possible is?
Answer: Endurance limit

Q311: Substance that attracts iron is called?
Answer: Magnet

Q312: Natural magnet is?
Answer: Lodestone

Q313: Material with permeability slightly less than free space is?
Answer: Diamagnetic materials

Q314: Material with slightly higher permeability than free space is?
Answer: Paramagnetic materials

Q315: Materials with very high permeability are?
Answer: Ferromagnetic materials

Q316: ASTM tensile test for plastics is?
Answer: D638

Q317: ASTM compression test for plastics is?
Answer: D695

Q318: ASTM shear test for plastics is?
Answer: D732

Q319: ASTM steel tensile test standard is?
Answer: A370

Q320: Polymer without additives is called?
Answer: Homopolymer

Q321: Polymer with two alternating mers is called?
Answer: Copolymer (interpolymer)

Q322: Rubber-like polymer is called?
Answer: Elastomer

Q323: Alloy of iron and carbon is?
Answer: Steel

Q324: Steel where carbon is main hardening element is?
Answer: Carbon steel

Q325: Steel with 0.8% carbon is?
Answer: Eutectoid steel

Q326: Galvanized steel is coated with?
Answer: Zinc

Q327: Removal of scale using acid is called?
Answer: Pickling

Q328: Tin mill steel without coating is called?
Answer: Black plate

Q329: High resistance heating alloy is?
Answer: Nichrome

Q330: Stainless steel requires minimum chromium?
Answer: 10%

Q331: To remove oxygen impurities we use?
Answer: Deoxidizers

Q332: High carbon iron-silicon alloy cast iron is?
Answer: Gray iron

Q333: Heat-treated ductile cast iron is?
Answer: Malleable iron

Q334: Hard and wear resistant cast iron is?
Answer: White iron

Q335: Most widely used cast iron is?
Answer: Gray iron

Q336: Advantage of quench hardening is?
Answer: All of the choices

Q337: Low temperature diffusion hardening process is?
Answer: Nitriding

Q338: Requirement for hardening steel is?
Answer: All of the choices

Q339: Study of metals production is called?
Answer: Metallurgy

Q340: Earth material mixed with iron oxide is?
Answer: Gangue

Q341: Burnt coal in low oxygen is?
Answer: Coke

Q342: Common alloying element in copper is?
Answer: Zinc

Q343: Case hardening by increasing surface carbon is?
Answer: Carburizing

Q344: Most undesirable element in steel is?
Answer: Phosphorus

Q345: Element causing red shortness is?
Answer: Sulfur

Q346: Surface hardening by flame is?
Answer: Flame hardening

Q347: Reinforcement in polymer composites is?
Answer: Glass fiber

Q348: Loss of electrons is called?
Answer: Oxidation

Q349: Gain of electrons is called?
Answer: Reduction

Q350: Fluid conducting electricity is?
Answer: Electrolyte

Q351: Local corrosion with cavities is?
Answer: Pitting

Q352: Removal of zinc from brass is?
Answer: Dezincification

Q353: Scaling off in flakes due to corrosion is?
Answer: Exfoliation

Q354: Shape formed by solidifying liquid in mold is?
Answer: Casting

Q355: Cast iron with nodular graphite is?
Answer: Ductile iron

Q356: Glass reinforced shaping by pulling resin strands is?
Answer: Continuous pultrusion

Q357: Natural plant polymer is?
Answer: Cellulose

Q358: Thermosetting polymer family from alcohols and acids is?
Answer: Alkyds

Q359: Surface hardening process is?
Answer: Case hardening

Q360: Chief ore of tin is?
Answer: Cassiterite

Q361: Chief ore of zinc is?
Answer: Sphalerite

Q362: Chief ore of titanium is?
Answer: Ilmenite

Q363: Aluminum ore is?
Answer: Bauxite

Q364: Bronze is alloy of?
Answer: Copper and tin

Q365: Brass is alloy of?
Answer: Copper and zinc

Q366: Most abundant metal in nature is?
Answer: Aluminum

Q367: Heat treatment converting martensite to pearlite is?
Answer: Annealing

Q368: Portland cement does NOT contain?
Answer: Asphalt

Q369: Another name for tempering is?
Answer: Drawing or toughening

Q370: Steel surface hardening process EXCEPT?
Answer: Annealing

Q371: Stress a material can withstand without fracture is?
Answer: Yield strength

Q372: Dimensionless deformation parameter is?
Answer: Strain

Q373: Stress proportional to strain law is?
Answer: Hooke’s law

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