Q. International law is also known as Public International because it is law which deals with? Answer: b. Law among nations
Q. The International law was earlier known as? Answer: c. Law of nations
Q. Who is said to be “The Father of Modern International Law”? Answer: b. Grotius
Q. The following jurist has said that International Law is mere positive morality: Answer: d. Austin
Q. Who amongst the following called international law as vanishing point of jurisprudence? Answer: d. Holland
Q. Which one of the following scholars consider International law as true law? Answer: a. Grotius
Q. “It is true that International Law is frequently violated but it doesn’t mean that International Law is not law” was observed by? Answer: a. Oppenheim
Q. Who defined the law of Nations or international law as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized countries in their relations with one another? Answer: b. Brierly
Q. How many sources of international law have been listed in Article 38(1) of the statute of International Court of Justice? Answer: a. Four
Q. Which one of the following is not a source of international law? Answer: a. Constitutions of Sovereign States
Q. By the expression General principles of law recognized by civilized nations? Answer: a. Rules accepted in the municipal laws of most of the states
Q. The formal sources of International law? Answer: a. Custom and treaties
Q. Judicial decision constitute? Answer: b. Subsidiary means for the determination of rules of law
Q. ‘Calvo clause’ and ‘Drago doctrine’ are the result of? Answer: d. None of the above
Q. International Law also develops through State practices. It is known as? Answer: c. International Customary Law
Q. “Usage represents the twilight stage of custom, custom therefore begins where usage ends.” It is stated by? Answer: c. Oppenheim
Q. International custom is? Answer: b. A general practice of states accepted as law
Q. The main ingredients of an international customary principles are? Answer: d. All the above
Q. The doctrine of ‘Pacta sunt servanda’ is a principle governing? Answer: b. Treaties in International Law
Q. “Pacta sunt servanda” means that? Answer: b. The agreement entered into by states will be respected and followed by them in good faith
Q. Pacta sunt servanda was propounded by? Answer: b. Italian jurist Anzilotti
Q. The sources of International law were authoritatively formulated for the first time by? Answer: c. The enactment of the International Court of Justice
Q. “Monism” denotes that International Law and State Law? Answer: b. Are concomitant aspects of one system
Q. “Dualism” denotes that International law and state law? Answer: a. Represent two entirely distinct legal systems
Q. The proponents of monistic theory do not include? Answer: d. Triepel
Q. The specific adoption or transformation theory is given by? Answer: a. Dualists
Q. The chief exponents of dualistic theory are? Answer: a. Triepel and Anzilotti
Q. Recognition of a new state is? Answer: a. Political act
Q. De jure recognition means? Answer: a. Recognition in law i.e., full-fledged conferment of status on new state in international law
Q. De facto recognition means? Answer: a. Recognition of a factual situation without conferring legality on the new state or government
Q. Once a de jure recognition is given to a new State, it is? Answer: b. Irrevocable
Q. The constitutive theory of recognition of a new state is advanced and supported by? Answer: d. Both a. & b. (Holland and Oppenheim)
Q. Which one of the following Doctrines is related to the recognition of states? Answer: a. Tobar doctrine
Q. The UN Charter was signed on 26 June, 1945, but it came into force from which date, also celebrated as United Nations Day? Answer: c. October 24, 1945
Q. October 24 is observed as UN Day because? Answer: b. Charter of United Nations came into force on this day
Q. UN Charter begins by proclaiming? Answer: a. “We the People of the United Nations”
Q. What is true about India in respect of United Nations (UN)? Answer: a. India is a member of UN since its inception in 1945 but not a permanent member of the Security Council
Q. The Doctrine of non-intervention under Article 2(4) prohibits? Answer: c. Threat of force or the use of force
Q. Article 2(7) of the United Nations Charter provides for? Answer: b. Non-interference in domestic affairs
Q. A member of United Nations can be expelled from the organization by? Answer: c. General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
Q. Under what circumstances a member of United Nations can be expelled? Answer: a. Persistent violation of the principles of the Charter
Q. The General Assembly of the United Nations consists of? Answer: c. Representatives of all member countries on the basis of one state, one vote
Q. General Assembly members have one vote, but each member state can send? Answer: d. 5 representatives
Q. The legislative functions of the United Nations are usually within the domain of? Answer: b. General Assembly
Q. Decisions of the United Nations General Assembly on important questions shall be made by? Answer: b. Two-thirds majority of members present and voting
Q. Under which Article is the liability of members for the expenses apportioned by the General Assembly? Answer: b. Article 17(2)
Q. Which among the following countries became the 193rd member of the United Nations? Answer: a. South Sudan
Q. The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are? Answer: b. Russian Federation, United States, Britain, France and China
Q. ‘Veto’ power in the United Nations is exercised by? Answer: a. Permanent members of the Security Council
Q. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for? Answer: a. Two years
Q. On which date did the Security Council come into existence? Answer: c. 12 January, 1946
Q. Which one of the following bodies has the power to enforce international peace in case of any threat to peace, breach of peace or act of aggression? Answer: b. Security Council
Q. Which organ of the United Nations Organization is responsible for coordinating the work of its specialized agencies? Answer: b. Economic and Social Council
Q. Economic and Social Council of the United Nations Organization consists of? Answer: d. 54 members
Q. The Secretary-General of the United Nations is appointed by? Answer: c. The General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
Q. UN Secretary-General heads which principal organ of the United Nations Organization? Answer: d. The Secretariat
Q. The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the UN. He is elected by? Answer: b. General Assembly on recommendation of the Security Council
Q. Which organ of the United Nations has ceased to be operational? Answer: d. Trusteeship Council
Q. The rule of ‘self-defence’ is provided under the United Nations Charter in? Answer: b. Article 51
Q. Which of the following is not an agency of the UN? Answer: c. International Committee of the Red Cross
Q. International Court of Justice was set up on? Answer: b. April 18, 1946
Q. The judges of the International Court of Justice are selected for a term of? Answer: a. 9 years
Q. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the International Court of Justice. The number of judges of the ICJ is fixed at? Answer: c. 15
Q. Chargé d’Affaires, appointed in a foreign state, has to report to? Answer: C. Foreign Office
Q. Consuls, in the receiving state, are considered representatives of? Answer: B. The Government
Q. Charter of the International Criminal Court was adopted in? Answer: A. Rome Conference, 1998
Q. “International Law is not a true law but a positive international morality,” said by? Answer: C. John Austin
Q. Genocide Convention 1951 protects the? Answer: D. None of these
Q. Who is known as the Father of International Law? Answer: B. Grotius
Q. Extradition means? Answer: C. Exchange of criminals to another State
Q. Alabama Claims Arbitration determined the principles of? Answer: C. Neutrality
Q. International Court of Justice can exercise its jurisdiction? Answer: C. With consent of all parties
Q. Decision of Arbitration is? Answer: A. Binding on parties
Q. Judges of the ICJ are? Answer: B. Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
Q. De jure Recognition is? Answer: A. Legal Recognition
Q. League of Nations was not joined by? Answer: A. U.S.A.
Q. The following are immune from extradition? Answer: D. None of these
Q. The General Assembly is? Answer: A. The principal organ of UNO
Q. Who said, “International Law is law in the true sense of the term”? Answer: A. Oppenheim
Q. Who said, “International Law is the body of principles and rules which civilized States consider as binding upon them in their mutual relations”? Answer: D. Hall
Q. Vital change of circumstances? Answer: B. Terminates the treaty
Q. International Law prescribes? Answer: C. Neither form nor procedure but leaves it to the will and convenience of the parties
Q. The Harmon Doctrine is? Answer: B. Was renounced before it could take root in International Law
Q. Under the Convention on the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Exclusive Economic Zone is? Answer: B. 200 nautical miles
Q. Under the Convention on the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Territorial Sea is? Answer: C. 12 nautical miles
Q. Rights of land-locked states are governed by? Answer: B. Convention on the Law of the Sea
Q. The continuity of states as International Legal Persons is? Answer: B. Not affected by change of government
Q. A successor state inherits? Answer: C. Some of the rights and duties of the predecessor state
Q. The concept of State Immunity is? Answer: A. An attribute of territorial sovereignty
Q. Diplomatic Asylum? Answer: B. Is a derogation from the sovereignty of a state
Q. The ICJ is? Answer: A. Principal organ of the UNO
Q. The Security Council is? Answer: A. Principal organ of the UNO
Q. International Law can? Answer: C. Furnish legal substance to an issue in dispute
Q. Public International Law is primarily concerned with the rights, duties and interests of? Answer: A. States
Q. Hugo Grotius was? Answer: A. Dutch
Q. A lower riparian state? Answer: C. Has the right to share waters on an equitable basis
Q. Supervening impossibility? Answer: B. Terminates the treaty
Q. The eruption of war terminates? Answer: B. Only political treaties
Q. A State becomes a Member of the United Nations? Answer: B. When the General Assembly admits it after recommendation of the Security Council
Q. The Judges of the ICJ are? Answer: B. Elected by the Security Council and the General Assembly
Q. Minquiers and Ecrehos case was decided by? Answer: A. ICJ
Q. Diplomatic asylum? Answer: B. Is a derogation from territorial sovereignty
Q. The violation of constitutional limitations means? Answer: B. Consent to be bound by a treaty is rendered invalid
Q. A state can use force? Answer: C. When it is attacked by another state
Q. A State? Answer: C. Can nationalize by paying compensation
Q. Extradition is granted in case of? Answer: A. Ordinary criminals
Q. Diplomatic relations are established by? Answer: A. Mutual consent
Q. Territorial asylum is? Answer: A. An exercise of territorial sovereignty
Q. Territorial integrity means? Answer: C. A State’s boundaries are secure and cannot be attacked
Q. The United Nations is? Answer: B. A creation of Member States
Q. A Member of the International Law Commission is elected by? Answer: B. General Assembly
Q. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights? Answer: C. Is a Declaration adopted by the General Assembly
Q. A State may become a Member of the UN? Answer: C. With the decision of both the Security Council and the General Assembly
Q. The Permanent Court of International Justice? Answer: B. Is the predecessor of the ICJ
Q. The Calvo Clause means? Answer: C. An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own State
Q. Under present-day International Law? Answer: B. A State cannot acquire title to territory by conquest
Q. The Most-Favoured Nation treatment means? Answer: B. A treatment extended to any third State
Q. A geographically disadvantaged State means? Answer: B. A State which has a short sea coast
Q. Coastal and land-locked States, according to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, have? Answer: C. A right to sail ships flying their flag on the high seas
Q. De facto Recognition is? Answer: C. Circumstantial Recognition
Q. European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms was adopted in? Answer: B. 1950
Q. Most-Favoured Nation treatment means? Answer: C. A treatment similar to the one extended to any third State
Q. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed in? Answer: C. 1948
Q. Extradition is granted in case of? Answer: A. Ordinary criminals
Q. Vienna Congress took place in? Answer: A. 1815
Q. Territorial integrity means? Answer: C. A State’s boundaries are secure and cannot be attacked
Q. Rights of land-locked states are governed by? Answer: B. Convention on the Law of the Sea
Q. A successor State inherits? Answer: B. Selected rights and duties
Q. Diplomatic relations are established by? Answer: A. Mutual agreement
Q. For a State to come into existence, one of the basic elements is? Answer: A. Possession of sovereignty
Q. A State can use force? Answer: A. In its own self-defence
Q. A lower riparian State? Answer: C. Has a right to share water on an equitable basis
Q. Under the Convention on the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Exclusive Economic Zone is? Answer: B. 200 nautical miles
Q. According to the Convention on the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Territorial Sea is? Answer: C. 12 nautical miles
Q. Continental Shelf of Pakistan may extend up to a distance of? Answer: D. None of these
Q. The limit of the Territorial Waters of Pakistan is? Answer: A. 12 nautical miles
Q. A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction? Answer: B. In criminal cases
Q. Foreign ships? Answer: C. Have the right of innocent passage through the Territorial Waters
Q. A State has the right to use force in case of? Answer: B. Armed attack
Q. Which one of the following is called “The Father of International Law”? Answer: C. Hugo Grotius
Q. What is contraband? Answer: D. Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war
Q. The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is? Answer: D. Nine years
Q. Extradition is normally granted? Answer: B. In criminal cases
Q. In procedural matters, the decisions of the Security Council are made by an affirmative vote of? Answer: B. 9 members
Q. The Security Council is? Answer: B. Principal Organ of the UN
Q. According to the “Floating Island Theory”, a floating island is? Answer: C. A ship bearing the national flag of a State
Q. According to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, the Contiguous Zone may not extend beyond? Answer: C. 24 nautical miles
Q. Statute of the International Court of Justice was drawn up by? Answer: C. San Francisco Conference, 1945
Q. Convention on the Law of the Sea was signed at Jamaica in? Answer: D. 1982
Q. Exclusive Economic Zone of Pakistan is an area beyond and adjacent to the Territorial Waters, the limit of which is? Answer: A. 200 nautical miles
Q. A successor State starts life? Answer: C. With a clean slate
Q. The principle of Ex injuria non oritur jus means? Answer: A. No benefit can be received from an illegal act
Q. Extraterritorial jurisdiction means? Answer: B. A State has jurisdiction over its nationals even when they live outside the country
Q. In Inland Waters, a State has? Answer: C. Exclusive jurisdiction
Q. The principle of Jus cogens means? Answer: A. A peremptory norm of International Law that cannot be derogated from
Q. The principle of Rebus sic stantibus means? Answer: B. A State may invoke a fundamental change of circumstances to terminate or suspend a treaty
Q. Pacta sunt servanda means? Answer: C. A State must perform treaty obligations in good faith
Q. Non-registration of a treaty? Answer: B. Treaty cannot be invoked before a UN organ
Q. The Contiguous Zone is? Answer: B. An area of sea beyond Territorial Waters
Q. State immunity means? Answer: B. A State is not subject to foreign courts’ jurisdiction
Q. The International Court of Justice is? Answer: A. A principal judicial organ of the UN
Free Trade Agreements
Q. What is a Free Trade Agreement (FTA)? Answer: C. Agreement between countries to reduce trade barriers
Q. Which of the following is not a feature of an FTA? Answer: B. Quotas on trade
Q. FTAs are generally signed to encourage? Answer: B. Trade liberalization
Q. Rules of origin in FTAs determine? Answer: B. Country where the good was manufactured
Q. The primary goal of an FTA is to? Answer: C. Promote free trade
Q. Which of the following is a bilateral FTA? Answer: C. India-UAE CEPA
Q. Which countries were part of the original NAFTA agreement? Answer: B. US, Canada, and Mexico
Q. What is the new name for NAFTA, updated in 2020? Answer: B. USMCA
Q. Which regional FTA includes Japan, Australia, and China? Answer: C. RCEP
Q. India opted out of which major Asia-Pacific trade agreement in 2019? Answer: A. RCEP
Q. FTAs often lead to? Answer: C. Enhanced market access
Q. Which sector often benefits most from FTAs? Answer: B. Manufacturing and exports
Q. FTAs can improve consumer choice by? Answer: C. Allowing import of cheaper goods
Q. Lower tariffs through FTAs can help businesses by? Answer: C. Lowering production costs
Q. Which of the following is a non-economic benefit of FTAs? Answer: C. Strengthened diplomatic relations
Q. A common criticism of FTAs is that they can? Answer: B. Harm domestic industries
Q. Developing countries may face issues in FTAs due to? Answer: B. Lack of negotiation capacity
Q. FTAs can lead to “trade diversion”, meaning? Answer: A. Trade shifts to less efficient producers due to tariff benefits
Q. Which type of FTA involves comprehensive trade and investment deals (e.g., CEPA, CECA)? Answer: C. Deep Integration Agreement
Q. One environmental concern with FTAs is that they may? Answer: B. Weaken environmental regulations
Q. Which Indian FTA was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023? Answer: A. India-Australia ECTA
Q. Which of these is a trade bloc, not an FTA? Answer: B. MERCOSUR
Q. Which organization helps in settling trade disputes globally? Answer: B. WTO
Q. The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) is made up of how many countries? Answer: C. 11
Q. Which of these is an FTA India is currently negotiating? Answer: B. India-EU FTA
Q. Trade between two countries can be useful if cost ratios of goods are? Answer: D. Different
Q. The term Euro Currency Market refers to? Answer: B. The market where the borrowing and lending of currencies take place outside the country of issue
Q. Which of the following theories suggests that firms seek to penetrate new markets over time? Answer: B. Product Cycle Theory
Q. Dumping refers to? Answer: B. Sale of goods abroad at a lower price, below their cost and price in their home market
Q. International trade and domestic trade differ because of? Answer: D. All of the above
Q. The margin for a currency future should be maintained with the clearing house by? Answer: D. Both the buyer and the seller
Q. The following statement with respect to currency option is wrong? Answer: D. Call option will be used by exporters
Q. Government policy about exports and imports is called? Answer: A. Commercial policy
Q. Which of the following is international trade? Answer: A. Trade between countries
Q. Market in which currencies are bought and sold and their prices are settled is called the? Answer: C. Foreign exchange market
Q. What is the primary objective of a Free Trade Agreement (FTA)? Answer: B. Eliminating tariffs and quotas among member countries
Q. What is the primary difference between a Free Trade Area and a Customs Union? Answer: A. A Free Trade Area allows members to set their own external tariffs, while a Customs Union adopts a common external tariff
Q. Why are “Rules of Origin” strictly enforced in a Free Trade Area? Answer: A. To prevent non-member countries from routing their goods through the member country with the lowest external tariff
Q. Which of the following best describes “Trade Creation” in the context of a Free Trade Agreement? Answer: A. When member countries replace high-cost domestic production with lower-cost imports from other member countries
Q. In economic theory, what does “Trade Diversion” typically represent as a negative consequence of an FTA? Answer: A. Shifting imports from a low-cost non-member country to a higher-cost member country due to tariff advantages
Q. Which agreement replaced NAFTA in 2020 and introduced stricter rules of origin, requiring a higher percentage of automobile parts to be made in the region? Answer: A. United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA)
Q. Which stage of economic integration involves the removal of trade barriers, a common external tariff, and the free movement of labor and capital among member states? Answer: C. Common Market
Q. Under World Trade Organization (WTO) rules, FTAs are generally allowed. However, they represent an exception to which fundamental WTO principle? Answer: B. Most-Favored-Nation (MFN) Principle
Q. Modern Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) have evolved significantly. Besides the reduction of tariffs on goods, which of the following areas is commonly included in modern FTAs? Answer: A. Provisions on intellectual property rights, digital trade, and environmental standards
Q. Aside from eliminating tariffs, FTAs aim to reduce Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs). Which of the following is an example of a Non-Tariff Barrier? Answer: D. An import quota limiting the amount of foreign steel entering a country
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