Pharmacy / Pharmacology / Pharmaceutical Sciences / Medicinal Chemistry PDF

Q. What is the field of medical science that studies drugs and their precise interactions with the human body called?
Answer: Pharmacology
Q. The biochemical study covering the processes of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as:
Answer: Pharmacokinetics
Q. Which branch of science focuses on analyzing the specific mechanisms of drug actions and the resulting physiological effects on the body?
Answer: Pharmacodynamics
Q. Chemical substances created by or derived from living organisms to destroy bacteria or halt their reproduction are called:
Answer: Antibiotics
Q. Through which biological paths or secretions are drugs eliminated from the human body?
Answer: All of the above (Kidneys, breast milk, saliva, sweat, and bile)
Q. From which of the following natural or artificial origins can therapeutic drugs be sourced?
Answer: All of the above (Animals, plants, micro-organisms, and synthetic origin)
Q. Which clinical factors directly alter or impact the overall rate of drug absorption?
Answer: All of the above (Route of administration, drug solubility, and the administration site)
Q. What is the term for introducing a liquid medication directly into a body orifice or cavity?
Answer: Instillation
Q. The topical application of medication onto the skin, typically accompanied by surface friction or rubbing, is called:
Answer: Inunction
Q. Through which specialized administrative route is Nitroglycerine typically given to a patient?
Answer: By sublingual route
Q. When an injection introduces a therapeutic agent directly into the bone marrow cavity, the route is termed:
Answer: Intramedullary
Q. Administering a medicinal solution directly into the spinal cavity describes which route?
Answer: Intrathecal
Q. Which administrative route must a clinician use when delivering a diagnostic test dose of penicillin?
Answer: Intradermal
Q. Injecting a drug past the primary layers of skin directly into the loose areolar tissue is known as:
Answer: Subcutaneous administration
Q. To guarantee safe medication delivery, which components must a nurse verify within a written medical prescription?
Answer: All of the above (Patient and drug names, dose and route, along with the date and physician’s signature)
Q. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the clinical administration of parenteral drugs:
Answer: Parenteral route cannot be used in case of an unconscious patient.
Q. Choose the correct rule concerning patient care and proper drug administration:
Answer: All of the above (Child doses are smaller, pregnancy/lactation must be evaluated for females, and the ‘five rights’ ensure patient safety)
Q. Medications specifically prescribed to alleviate or dull physical pain are classified as:
Answer: Analgesics
Q. Which category of pharmaceutical agents is responsible for lowering an elevated body temperature during a fever?
Answer: Antipyretics
Q. Which drug class is utilized to control, minimize, or treat convulsive seizures in an epileptic patient?
Answer: Anticonvulsants
Q. Medical substances that are administered to neutralize or counteract the toxic impacts of a poison are called:
Answer: Antidotes
Q. Which agents are designed to eradicate, destroy, and expel parasitic worms from the host body?
Answer: Antihelminthics
Q. A localized or systemic drug used specifically to soothe or stop itching is an:
Answer: Antipruritic
Q. Medications used to successfully manage, suppress, or prevent symptoms of nausea and vomiting are called:
Answer: Antiemetics
Q. Which therapeutic agent is prescribed to elevate total hemoglobin levels within the bloodstream?
Answer: Haematinics
Q. Which class of drugs acts directly on the kidneys to elevate total urine output?
Answer: Diuretics
Q. Substances that expand blood vessel diameter to effectively lower systemic blood pressure are known as:
Answer: Vasodilators
Q. Cardiotonic drugs are primarily administered to achieve which clinical outcome?
Answer: Increase heart rate and cardiac muscle contractions
Q. Anxiolytic medications are strictly indicated for which of the following mental health uses?
Answer: To relieve anxiety
Q. Mydriatic medications are topically applied to the eye in order to:
Answer: Dilate the pupil of the eye
Q. Miotic eye drops are pharmaceutical agents designed to:
Answer: Constrict the pupil of the eye
Q. Hypnotic agents are a class of medications primarily used to:
Answer: Induce sleep
Q. A galactagogue is a specific substance administered to:
Answer: Increase breast milk secretion
Q. Which essential fat-soluble vitamin is widely recognized as the anti-sterility vitamin?
Answer: Vitamin E
Q. Which of the following is considered a key clinical advantage of using the Intravenous (I.V.) route?
Answer: All of the above (Ideal for emergencies, allows large volume delivery, and provides immediate systemic response)
Q. When an injection is labeled as ‘Intra-articular’, the drug is being delivered directly into the:
Answer: Joints
Q. What is an inherent therapeutic risk or disadvantage of using the Intravenous (I.V.) route?
Answer: All of the above (Injected over-doses cannot be retrieved, demands specialized training, and presents infection risks)
Q. For an unconscious patient requiring immediate systemic medication, which route is preferred?
Answer: Intravenous
Q. Which of the following issues represents a potential adverse complication of receiving clinical injections?
Answer: All of the above (Infections, pyrogenic reactions, and localized tissue trauma)
Q. Injecting medications repeatedly into the exact same bodily location can trigger:
Answer: All of the above (Skin induration with scar formation, nerve injuries, and blood vessel wall damage)
Q. Choosing the correct anatomical site for an injection depends heavily on which parameters?
Answer: All of the above (Physician’s ordered route, total fluid volume, and unique chemical properties of the drug)
Q. In a clinical setting, an infusion labeled as 5% Glucose Saline signifies that:
Answer: Each 100 ml contains 5 gms glucose and 0.9 gm sodium chloride.
Q. Before executing an injection procedure, a nurse must be competent in doing which of the following tasks?
Answer: All of the above (Selecting matching equipment, choosing the site accurately, and preparing precise medication volumes)
Q. What is a practical advantage of choosing single-use plastic syringes over glass alternatives?
Answer: All of the above (They are disposable and economical, highly shatter-resistant, and minimize air embolism risks)
Q. Which physical and clinical variables dictate the selection of specific syringes and needle sizes?
Answer: All of the above (The prescribed route, solution viscosity, and total medication volume to be delivered)
Q. Which of the following anatomical structures is not considered a component of a standard medical syringe?
Answer: Shaft
Q. When selecting an appropriate needle for patient care, which safety features should be verified?
Answer: All of the above (A sharp hook-free bevel, using the smallest appropriate gauge, and ensuring a tight fit to the syringe hub)
Q. Which pharmacological fact is completely true regarding Paracetamol?
Answer: All of the above (It possesses analgesic/antipyretic traits, has weak anti-inflammatory action, and is hepatotoxic in high doses)
Q. A fluid solution consisting of 5% Dextrose in Normal Saline (DNS) is categorized as a:
Answer: Hypertonic fluid
Q. Which clinical statement regarding the properties of Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid) is incorrect?
Answer: Aspirin increases platelet aggregation and helps in blood coagulation.
Q. What fact is clinically verified regarding a standard Normal Saline (NS) solution?
Answer: All of the above (It consists of 0.9% sodium chloride, stands as an isotonic solution, and must be avoided in cases of CHF or pulmonary edema)
Q. Which of the following standard intravenous fluids is classified as an Isotonic solution?
Answer: Both (a) and (c) (Ringer’s Lactate and 0.9% Normal Saline)
Q. Which of the following intravenous fluid concentrations is classified as a Hypotonic solution?
Answer: All of the above (0.25% sodium chloride, 2.5% dextrose, and 0.45% sodium chloride solutions)
Q. What is the standard medical abbreviation used to represent the weight unit ‘grain’?
Answer: gr
Q. Within the metrics framework, what is designated as the primary standard unit of mass or weight?
Answer: Kilogram
Q. One kilogram (1 kg) converts roughly to how many pounds (lb)?
Answer: 2.2 pounds
Q. What is the total mass of adrenaline present within a 100 ml flask of a 1:1000 concentration solution?
Answer: 0.1 gm
Q. One fluid ounce (fl. oz.) is equivalent to approximately how many milliliters?
Answer: 25 ml
Q. One regular avoirdupois ounce (oz) is equal to approximately how many grams?
Answer: 30 grams
Q. One standard Imperial gallon is equivalent to which approximate volume in milliliters?
Answer: 4000 ml
Q. One complete liquid gallon is comprised of how many fluid ounces?
Answer: 160 fl. ounce
Q. What exact mass of raw sodium chloride is dissolved to prepare 1 liter of standard Isotonic Normal Saline?
Answer: 9 gm
Q. In standardized medical liquid conversions, 1 pint is equivalent to:
Answer: 500 ml
Q. One liquid pint is equal to how many fluid ounces?
Answer: 20 oz
Q. A volume measuring a total of 5 pints is equivalent to:
Answer: 2500 ml
Q. One standard domestic teaspoonful (tsp) provides a fluid volume equal to:
Answer: 5 ml
Q. One standard domestic tablespoonful (tbsp) provides a fluid volume equal to:
Answer: 15 ml
Q. A total volume of 1 liter of fluid is equivalent to:
Answer: 2 pints
Q. Analgesic medications are specifically administered into a patient’s care plan to:
Answer: Relieve pain
Q. A pure 5% Dextrose water intravenous solution is chemically categorized as:
Answer: Isotonic solution
Q. Mixing 5% Dextrose directly into a Normal Saline solution creates a fluid that is:
Answer: Hypertonic solution
Q. An intravenous solution containing Mannitol behaves inside the intravascular space as a:
Answer: Hypertonic solution
Q. Which of the following clinical intravenous preparations is classified as a hypertonic solution?
Answer: All of the above (5% dextrose in NS, 5% dextrose in ½ NS, and 5% dextrose in RL)
Q. Which of the following generic items is categorized as a functional antiemetic drug?
Answer: All of the above (Metoclopramide, Domperidone, and Ondansetron)
Q. In what historical year was the original Poison Act enacted?
Answer: 1919
Q. What is the clinical meaning of the pharmacy abbreviation ‘gtt’?
Answer: A drop
Q. What is the standardized short symbol used to represent a gallon?
Answer: gal
Q. The prescription abbreviation ‘Ung.’ indicates which type of drug preparation?
Answer: Ointment
Q. Which of the following choices represents the correct pharmacy symbol for a powder form medicine?
Answer: Pulv.
Q. The Latin prescription abbreviation ‘Mist.’ stands for which type of formulation?
Answer: Mixture
Q. Which shorthand symbol represents plain water within a medical prescription layout?
Answer: aq.
Q. The term ‘Lin.’ is a standard prescription abbreviation used to denote a:
Answer: Liniment
Q. When a doctor writes the abbreviation ‘stat.’ on an order sheet, it means the drug must be given:
Answer: At once
Q. The pharmacy abbreviation ‘prn.’ tells a clinician that the medicine should be administered:
Answer: When required
Q. If a medical order displays the symbol ‘h.s.’, the nurse knows to administer the medication:
Answer: At bed time
Q. The prescription shorthand ‘h.n.’ indicates that the medication must be given:
Answer: Tonight
Q. What is the clinical definition of the Latin medical abbreviation ‘S.O.S.’?
Answer: If necessary in emergency
Q. When a drug is marked with the symbol ‘a.c.’, it dictates that delivery should happen:
Answer: Before meals
Q. The abbreviation ‘c.m.’ on a medical prescription stands for:
Answer: Tomorrow morning
Q. What is the maximum recommended fluid volume that can be safely injected into a single Intramuscular (I.M.) site?
Answer: 5 ml
Q. Which of the following items is a semi-synthetic or synthetic opioid, rather than a natural opium alkaloid?
Answer: Pethidine
Q. Which of the following substances is classified as a natural opium alkaloid?
Answer: Morphine
Q. For a patient experiencing excruciating visceral pain due to acute pancreatitis, which analgesic is preferred?
Answer: Meperidine hydrochloride (Pethidine)
Q. Which of the following pain management options is classified as a synthetic opioid?
Answer: All (Pethidine, Tramadol, and Methadone)
Q. Fentanyl belongs to which specific therapeutic drug class?
Answer: Synthetic opioid analgesic
Q. What are the common physiological or psychological reactions caused by administering opioid (narcotic) analgesics?
Answer: All of the above (Sedation/analgesia, euphoria/respiratory depression, and nausea/vomiting/constipation)
Q. Why is Morphine strictly contraindicated for a patient who has suffered an acute head injury?
Answer: All of the above (It risks respiratory depression, raises intracranial pressure, and induces mental clouding/vomiting)
Q. Which statement regarding the clinical use and properties of Pethidine is accurate?
Answer: All of the above are true (It is a synthetic morphine derivative, often preferred over morphine for specific pains, and manages visceral pain)
Q. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the narcotic painkiller Tramadol:
Answer: It is a naturally occurring opium alkaloid.
Q. Which pharmaceutical agent is utilized as the specific clinical antidote to reverse a Morphine overdose?
Answer: Naloxone
Q. Which of the following formulations belongs to the natural Penicillin group?
Answer: All of the above (Benzyl penicillin–G, Procaine penicillin–G, and Benzathine penicillin)
Q. Which specific natural penicillin variation provides the longest duration of therapeutic action?
Answer: Benzathine penicillin (Penidura)
Q. Which broad-spectrum penicillin variant maintains high efficacy when delivered via both oral and parenteral pathways?
Answer: Amoxicillin
Q. Which administrative routes are considered part of the enteral route category?
Answer: All (Oral, Sublingual, and Rectal)
Q. Which of the following antimicrobial medications exert a direct bactericidal (bacteria-killing) action?
Answer: Gentamycin and Penicillin
Q. Which statements accurately describe the clinical properties and risks of Penicillins?
Answer: All of the above are true (They are cell-wall synthesis inhibiting bactericidals, neurotoxic in massive doses, and susceptible to penicillinase destruction)
Q. Which of the following choices belongs to the first-generation Cephalosporin family?
Answer: Cefadroxil

Pharmaceutical Sciences / Medicinal Chemistry 

Q1: Medicinal chemistry is a science of which roots are interlinked with?
Answer: Chemistry and Biology
Q2: Morphine was isolated from opium by?
Answer: Sertuner
Q3: Aspirin was introduced by ______ in 1889.
Answer: Dreser’s
Q4: First hormone epinephrine was synthesized in which year?
Answer: 1904
Q5: Who is the founder of modern medicine?
Answer: Hippocrates
Q6: Identification of a new chemical entity as a potential therapeutic agent (From Hit to Lead) is known as?
Answer: Drug discovery
Q7: The process of bringing a new pharmaceutical drug to the market after the lead compound has been identified is known as?
Answer: Drug development
Q8: Natural products, derivatives, or synthetic substances with good binding ability in drug discovery are known as?
Answer: Hit
Q9: A compound with good activity and selectivity during drug discovery screening is known as?
Answer: Lead
Q10: The main goals of pre-clinical studies are?
Answer: To determine the safe dose for first-in-man study and assess a product’s safety profile.
Q11: IND stands for?
Answer: Investigational New Drug
Q12: Human micro-dosing studies are conducted in which clinical phase?
Answer: Phase 0
Q13: MTD stands for?
Answer: Maximum Tolerated Dose
Q14: Single ascending dose studies are done in?
Answer: Phase Ia
Q15: NDA stands for?
Answer: New Drug Application
Q16: Phase IV trial is also known as?
Answer: Post Marketing Surveillance
Q17: How many people are selected for Phase I trial?
Answer: 20–50 people
Q18: How many people are selected for Phase II trial?
Answer: 20–300 people
Q19: How many people are selected for Phase III trial?
Answer: 300–3000 people
Q20: Which one of the following will be checked under Phase IV surveillance?
Answer: The whole market will be under surveillance
Q21: Precision Medicine is an emerging approach depending on?
Answer: Genomic study of an individual
Q22: How many main families of GPCRs are there?
Answer: 6
Q23: Which reaction is catalyzed by adenylate cyclase?
Answer: Conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP
Q24: Oxadiazole ring contains?
Answer: 2 Nitrogen and 1 Oxygen atoms
Q25: The heteroaromatic radical is called?
Answer: Naphthyl
Q26: Name of the given aromatic ring.
Answer: 1-Ethyl-2-methyl naphthalene
Q27: Name of the given aromatic ring.
Answer: Azepane
Q28: Which statement best describes pharmacodynamics?
Answer: The study of how a drug interacts with its target binding site at the molecular level.
Q29: Which statement best describes pharmacokinetics?
Answer: The study of how drugs reach their target in the body and how drug levels are affected by ADME.
Q30: What are soft drugs?
Answer: Chemical drugs which are already found in the body.
Q31: Addition of a non-polar group ______ partition coefficient.
Answer: Improves
Q32: Gentamicin and streptokinase can be given by which route?
Answer: Parenterally
Q33: What is the distance between a hydrogen bond?
Answer: 2.5–3.2 Å
Q34: What is the angle of a hydrogen bond?
Answer: 130°–180°
Q35: What is the strength of a hydrogen bond?
Answer: 1–7 kcal/mol
Q36: p-Nitrophenol contains which type of hydrogen bond?
Answer: Intermolecular hydrogen bond
Q37: Which factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to drugs?
Answer: Number of binding sites on the binding agent
Q38: Which factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to drug interactions with the binding site?
Answer: Inter-subject variation
Q39: Which of the following is a drug interaction factor for protein-drug binding?
Answer: Competition between drugs for the binding site
Q40: Only unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated.
Answer: True
Q41: Plasma proteins bind with drugs by the formation of?
Answer: All of the above
Q42: The most significant protein involved in drug binding is?
Answer: Albumin
Q43: The most abundant plasma protein is?
Answer: Albumin (Human Serum Albumin)
Q44: Chelating agent Dimercaprol is used in the treatment of?
Answer: Arsenic poisoning
Q45: Which chelating agent is used as an antidote in lead and vanadium poisoning?
Answer: Disodium EDTA
Q46: Absorption of tetracycline is reduced in the presence of milk because of?
Answer: Chelation
Q47: Functional groups of the same valence and ring equivalents are known as?
Answer: Classical Bioisosteres
Q48: Bioisosteres have?
Answer: Same physical, chemical, and similar biological properties
Q49: R(−)-Epinephrine shows 3-point interaction with the receptor, while S(+)-Epinephrine shows 2-point interaction.
Answer: True
Q50: (+)-Warfarin is ______ times more potent than (−)-Warfarin.
Answer: 5
Q51: (+)-Sotalol is a beta blocker while (−)-Sotalol is?
Answer: Antiarrhythmic
Q52: D-Penicillamine is antiarthritic while L-Penicillamine is?
Answer: Toxic
Q53: D-Asparagine has a sweet taste while L-Asparagine has?
Answer: Tasteless
Q54: Biotransformation of drugs is defined as the conversion from one physical form to another.
Answer: False
Q55: Drug biotransformation is a detoxification process.
Answer: True
Q56: Phase I reactions are also known as synthetic reactions.
Answer: True
Q57: Phase I reactions are detoxification pathways.
Answer: True
Q58: Phase II reactions are detoxification pathways.
Answer: True
Q59: Which of the following is not a Phase I reaction?
Answer: Sulphide reactions
Q60: Which statement best describes Phase I metabolism?
Answer: Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.
Q61: Which statement best describes Phase II metabolism?
Answer: Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug or one of its metabolites.
Q62: Which of the following is not a characteristic of moieties transferred in Phase II reactions?
Answer: Strong non-polar groups are attached.
Q63: Which enzyme is not involved in catalyzing Phase I metabolic reactions?
Answer: Glucuronyl transferase
Q64: Which of the following is not a Phase I metabolic transformation?
Answer: Conjugation to alcohols
Q65: What is the major end product of oxidation of aromatic carbon atoms?
Answer: Arenols
Q66: Which of the following is not a common nitrogen-containing functional group undergoing reduction?
Answer: Nitrite compounds
Q67: Hydrolysis of Aspirin yields?
Answer: Salicylic acid and CH₃COOH
Q68: Which enzyme is important in Phase II reactions?
Answer: Transferase
Q69: Which group is least susceptible to cytochrome P450 enzymes?
Answer: Quaternary carbon atoms
Q70: Alkenes and aromatic groups are metabolized to diols by?
Answer: Cytochrome P450 enzymes and epoxide hydrolase
Q71: Solubility of a drug in polar and non-polar solvents depends upon?
Answer: All of the above
Q72: Drug diffusion across a membrane is higher when?
Answer: Partition coefficient is high
Q73: Diazepam metabolized into Hydroxydiazepam is an example of?
Answer: Oxidation at the carbon alpha to carbonyl and imino group
Q74: Which reaction is most common in drugs having ester or amide functional groups?
Answer: Hydrolysis
Q75: UDPGA stands for?
Answer: Uridine diphospho-α-D-glucuronic acid
Q76: Which statement about D-glucuronic acid is false?
Answer: Whole animal kingdom has the common ability to produce D-glucuronic acid.
Q77: Which enzyme is most important for the second step in glucuronide formation?
Answer: UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Q78: What is the site of first-pass metabolism before molecules reach systemic circulation?
Answer: Intestine
Q79: Which organ plays a major role in extra-hepatic metabolism and contains CYP3A4 isozyme and P-glycoprotein?
Answer: Liver
Q80: Which test uses microsomal extracts from the ER for in-vitro drug metabolism studies?
Answer: Ames test
Q81: Which is the protein component of the cytochrome P450 system?
Answer: Heme protein CYP450
Q82: Which statement is not true about cytochrome P450 enzymes?
Answer: They contain haem and magnesium.
Q83: What is not a xenobiotic?
Answer: Steroids
Q84: Which cytochrome P450 isozyme is most abundantly expressed in the human liver and intestines?
Answer: CYP3A4
Q85: Which antiarrhythmic drug is a calcium channel blocker?
Answer: Nifedipine
Q86: Which drug should not be given to a poor CYP2D6 metabolizer?
Answer: Codeine
Q87: Which injection is administered directly into systemic circulation?
Answer: Intravenous
Q88: Where is Prontosil converted to Sulfanilamide?
Answer: Gut
Q89: What are xenobiotics?
Answer: Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes.
Q90: What is the active form of salicylic acid?
Answer: Salicylic acid
Q91: What is the inactive form of Codeine?
Answer: Morphine
Q92: What is the correct decreasing order of drug metabolism?
Answer: Liver > Lungs > Kidneys > Intestine > Placenta > Skin > Adrenals
Q93: Which one of the following is reactive and a known carcinogen?
Answer: Arene oxide
Q94: Which of the following is not an example of a drug undergoing acetylation?
Answer: Salicylic acids
Q95: The overall rate of biotransformation is higher in neonates and infants than in adults.
Answer: False
Q96: Elderly adults have a reduced capacity to metabolize drugs compared with children and young adults.
Answer: True
Q97: What is enzyme induction?
Answer: The phenomenon of increased drug-metabolizing ability of enzymes by drugs and chemicals.
Q98: Which drug shows self-induction to stimulate its own metabolism?
Answer: Meprobamate
Q99: Alcohol is an inducer for which drug?
Answer: Pentobarbital
Q100: Structurally similar compounds competing for the same enzyme site cause which type of inhibition?
Answer: Competitive inhibition
Q101: Structurally different compounds preventing drug metabolism produce which type of inhibition?
Answer: Non-competitive inhibition
Q102: Decreased enzyme synthesis leading to reduced enzyme amount is called?
Answer: Repression
Q103: Decreased enzyme content due to nutritional deficiency is known as?
Answer: Altered physiology
Q104: Which of the following is not an environmental agent that decreases drug-metabolizing ability?
Answer: Methacholine
Q105: What is polygenic control of drugs?
Answer: Drug controlling seen in twins
Q106: Differences observed in drug metabolism among different races are known as?
Answer: Ethnic variations
Q107: Which age group is known as neonates?
Answer: Up to 2 months
Q108: Which age group metabolizes drugs faster than adults?
Answer: Between 1–12 years
Q109: Fat-free diet depresses which enzyme level?
Answer: Cytochrome P-450 level

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