General Nursing Questions PDF

1. What is the first step of the nursing process?

• Answer: Assessment

• Explanation: Assessment involves systematically collecting subjective and objective baseline patient data.

2. Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?

• Answer: Liver

• Explanation: The liver uses microsomal enzymes for chemical biotransformation of medications.

3. What is the normal human body temperature range in Celsius?

• Answer: 36.5°C – 37.5°C

• Explanation: Baseline body temperature fluctuates between 36.5°C and 37.5°C under homeostatic control.

4. Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination?

• Answer: Active Artificial

• Explanation: Active artificial immunity triggers an immune response by introducing inactivated or attenuated antigens.

5. What is the main cause of bedsores (pressure ulcers)?

• Answer: Prolonged pressure on skin

• Explanation: Sustained pressure over bony prominences restricts capillary blood flow, causing tissue ischemia.

6. Which position is most suitable for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea?

• Answer: High-Fowler’s

• Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed 60–90 degrees lowers the diaphragm to maximize thoracic expansion.

7. Which needle gauge is standard for adult blood transfusion?

• Answer: 18 G

• Explanation: Large-bore 18-gauge (or 20-gauge) catheters prevent mechanical hemolysis of red cells.

8. What is the functional unit of the kidney?

• Answer: Nephron

• Explanation: The nephron filters metabolic waste, regulates electrolytes, and balances fluid volume.

9. Universal blood donor group is:

• Answer: O Negative

• Explanation: Type O Negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh surface antigens, avoiding acute hemolytic reactions.

10. What is the recommended chest compression depth for an adult in CPR?

• Answer: 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm)

• Explanation: CPR guidelines specify compressing the sternum 2 to 2.4 inches to generate cardiac output.

11. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart?

• Answer: Pulmonary Vein

• Explanation: Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium.

12. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes:

• Answer: Rickets

• Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency impairs intestinal calcium absorption, producing soft bones.

13. A sterile field is considered contaminated if:

• Answer: Touched by unsterile items or dropped below waist level

• Explanation: Unmonitored areas below waist height violate aseptic technique principles.

14. What is the primary sign of hypovolemic shock?

• Answer: Hypotension and Tachycardia

• Explanation: Intravascular volume depletion lowers blood pressure and triggers compensatory tachycardia.

15. Standard infection control precautions apply to:

• Answer: All patients in all healthcare settings

• Explanation: Standard precautions apply universally to prevent bloodborne pathogens and hospital cross-contamination.

16. Apical pulse is assessed at which anatomical site?

• Answer: 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line

• Explanation: Direct auscultation over the mitral area (left 5th intercostal space) gives the true apex pulse rate.

17. What is the normal pH of human arterial blood?

• Answer: 7.35 – 7.45

• Explanation: Physiological buffer systems keep plasma pH within the strict 7.35 to 7.45 range.

18. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Trousseau’s sign?

• Answer: Hypocalcemia

• Explanation: Carpopedal spasm induced by inflating a BP cuff signals neuromuscular irritability from low serum calcium.

19. What is the primary route for tube feeding?

• Answer: Enteral

• Explanation: Enteral nutrition delivers liquid formulas into the gastrointestinal tract using feeding tubes.

20. Which hormone regulates blood glucose lowering?

• Answer: Insulin

• Explanation: Pancreatic beta cells release insulin to move circulating glucose into peripheral body tissues.

21. What is the main cause of hospital-acquired urinary tract infections (HAUTIs)?

• Answer: Indwelling urinary catheters

• Explanation: Catheter insertion introduces bacteria into the urinary tract and creates biofilms along the lumen.

22. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

• Answer: Cranial Nerve II

• Explanation: The Optic Nerve (CN II) transmits visual sensations from the retina to the visual cortex.

23. What is the standard angle for an Intramuscular (IM) injection?

• Answer: 90 degrees

• Explanation: Holding the needle perpendicular at 90 degrees ensures deep penetration into muscle tissue.

24. Which position is used for administering an enema?

• Answer: Left Sims’ position

• Explanation: Left Sims’ position places the sigmoid colon downwards, aiding fluid flow under gravity.

25. Which mineral is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?

• Answer: Iodine

• Explanation: Iodine is incorporated directly into thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) structure.

26. Which type of isolation is mandatory for Pulmonary Tuberculosis?

• Answer: Airborne Isolation

• Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis spreads via small airborne droplet nuclei requiring negative pressure rooms.

27. What is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?

• Answer: Protamine Sulfate

• Explanation: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin’s anticoagulant effect through ionic binding.

28. What is the therapeutic blood level of Digoxin?

• Answer: 0.5 – 2.0 ng/mL

• Explanation: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index; levels above 2.0 ng/mL carry high risk of cardiac toxicity.

29. What is the primary functional landmark for checking a CVP (Central Venous Pressure)?

• Answer: Phlebostatic axis

• Explanation: Aligning the transducer to the phlebostatic axis (4th intercostal space, mid-axillary line) prevents hydrostatic pressure errors.

30. Which vitamin deficiency causes Scurvy?

• Answer: Vitamin C

• Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is necessary for collagen synthesis; deficiency causes fragile capillary walls.

31. What is the normal specific gravity of urine?

• Answer: 1.005 – 1.030

• Explanation: Standard renal concentration produces urine specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030.

32. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) measures:

• Answer: Level of consciousness

• Explanation: GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to score neurological function.

33. What is the minimum score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

• Answer: 3

• Explanation: The minimum score for each subscale (eye, verbal, motor) is 1, making 3 the lowest total score.

34. Which intravenous fluid is isotonic?

• Answer: 0.9% Normal Saline

• Explanation: 0.9% Sodium Chloride matches extracellular fluid osmolarity (~300 mOsm/L).

35. What is the classic triad of symptoms in Diabetes Mellitus?

• Answer: Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia

• Explanation: Hyperglycemia leads to osmotic diuresis (polyuria), thirst (polydipsia), and cellular starvation (polyphagia).

36. Which assessment finding indicates fluid volume overload?

• Answer: Distended neck veins (JVD)

• Explanation: Increased venous return and elevated central venous pressure produce jugular vein distension.

37. Which site is preferred for IM injections in infants under 12 months?

• Answer: Vastus Lateralis

• Explanation: The vastus lateralis is the largest, most developed muscle group free of major nerves in infants.

38. What is the function of platelets (thrombocytes)?

• Answer: Blood clotting

• Explanation: Platelets adhere to damaged vascular endothelium and form the primary hemostatic plug.

39. Chvostek’s sign tests for hyperirritability of which nerve?

• Answer: Facial nerve

• Explanation: Tapping over the parotid gland contracts facial muscles during hypocalcemia.

40. Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?

• Answer: Epiglottis

• Explanation: The epiglottis folds down to seal off the laryngeal inlet while swallowing.

41. The volume of air inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath is called:

• Answer: Tidal Volume

• Explanation: Tidal volume represents normal restful respiration volume, averaging ~500 mL in adults.

42. Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

• Answer: Mitral (Bicuspid) Valve

• Explanation: The mitral valve regulates flow between the left atrium and left ventricle.

43. What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity?

• Answer: Vitamin K

• Explanation: Vitamin K restores hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

44. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient during a tonic-clonic seizure?

• Answer: Maintain airway safety and protect from injury

• Explanation: Clear hazards and turn the patient lateral to prevent aspiration; do not force items into the mouth.

45. Which diagnostic test confirms the diagnosis of Myocardial Infarction?

• Answer: Troponin I/T levels

• Explanation: Cardiac troponins are highly sensitive, specific protein biomarkers of myocardial cell necrosis.

46. Cyanosis indicates a deficiency of:

• Answer: Oxygen

• Explanation: Deoxygenated hemoglobin exceeding 5 g/dL produces bluish skin and mucosal discoloration.

47. Which position reduces intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• Answer: Head of bed elevated 30 degrees

• Explanation: Elevating the head 30 degrees promotes cerebral venous drainage via gravity.

48. What is the therapeutic target range for INR in a patient on Warfarin therapy?

• Answer: 2.0 – 3.0

• Explanation: An INR of 2.0–3.0 offers effective anticoagulation while minimizing major hemorrhage risk.

49. Oliguria is defined as urine output less than:

• Answer: 400 mL/24 hours

• Explanation: Urine output below 400 mL/day (or <0.5 mL/kg/hr) indicates impaired renal filtration.

50. What type of solution is 3% Sodium Chloride?

• Answer: Hypertonic

• Explanation: 3% NaCl has a higher solute concentration than blood, causing fluid to shift out of cells.

51. Which pulse site is used during adult CPR assessment?

• Answer: Carotid

• Explanation: The carotid artery is accessible and retains a pulse longest during central circulatory collapse.

52. What is the term for slow heart rate under 60 beats per minute?

• Answer: Bradycardia

• Explanation: Sinus rates below 60 bpm in adults are defined as bradycardia.

53. Primary prevention strategies focus on:

• Answer: Health promotion and disease prevention

• Explanation: Primary prevention interventions (immunization, health education) reduce risk factors before disease occurs.

54. Which assessment tool evaluates pressure ulcer risk?

• Answer: Braden Scale

• Explanation: The Braden Scale assesses sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction.

55. An APGAR score is calculated at what post-birth intervals?

• Answer: 1 and 5 minutes

• Explanation: Initial neonatal assessment occurs at 1 minute, then repeats at 5 minutes to evaluate adaptation.

56. What is the antidote for Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) overdose?

• Answer: N-acetylcysteine

• Explanation: N-acetylcysteine replenishes hepatic glutathione stores to detoxify reactive metabolites.

57. Which electrolyte disturbance triggers tall, peaked T-waves on an ECG?

• Answer: Hyperkalemia

• Explanation: Elevated extracellular potassium alters ventricular repolarization, causing narrow, peaked T-waves.

58. What is the standard duration for surgical hand scrubbing?

• Answer: 3 to 5 minutes

• Explanation: A 3-to-5-minute scrub using approved antiseptic agents reduces transient flora before surgery.

59. Which instrument measures intraocular pressure?

• Answer: Tonometer

• Explanation: Tonometry measures corneal resistance to assess intraocular pressure for conditions like glaucoma.

60. Absence of bowel sounds for 5 minutes indicates:

• Answer: Paralytic ileus

• Explanation: Absent gastrointestinal motility indicates bowel muscular paralysis (paralytic ileus).

61. What is the primary cause of Pernicious Anemia?

• Answer: Absence of Intrinsic Factor

• Explanation: Lack of intrinsic factor prevents gastric absorption of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin).

62. Which blood cell type functions primarily in cell-mediated immunity?

• Answer: T Lymphocytes

• Explanation: T lymphocytes (CD4/CD8 cells) direct cell-mediated adaptive immune responses.

63. What is the principal electrolyte in extracellular fluid?

• Answer: Sodium

• Explanation: Sodium (Na+) accounts for ~90% of extracellular cations, maintaining osmotic volume balance.

64. What is the principal electrolyte in intracellular fluid?

• Answer: Potassium

• Explanation: Potassium (K+) is the primary intracellular cation, regulating resting membrane potential.

65. Kussmaul respirations are classically associated with:

• Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

• Explanation: Deep, rapid breathing is a compensatory mechanism to blow off CO2 and correct metabolic acidosis.

66. What is the action of a positive inotropic medication?

• Answer: Increases myocardial contraction force

• Explanation: Positive inotropes (e.g., Digoxin, Dobutamine) increase the strength of cardiac contractions.

67. Standard concentration of Oxygen in room air is:

• Answer: 21%

• Explanation: Ambient air consists of ~21% oxygen alongside 78% nitrogen.

68. Which diet is appropriate for a patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?

• Answer: Low protein, low potassium, restricted fluid

• Explanation: Restricting protein, potassium, and fluids minimizes nitrogenous waste and hyperkalemia risks.

69. What is the classic clinical manifestation of Nephrotic Syndrome?

• Answer: Massive proteinuria and generalized edema

• Explanation: Increased glomerular permeability causes protein loss, hypoalbuminemia, and peripheral edema.

70. The primary assessment site for checking a pulse in infants is:

• Answer: Brachial artery

• Explanation: The brachial artery in the inner upper arm is accessible and reliable in infants.

71. What is the antidote for Opioid toxicity (e.g., Morphine overdose)?

• Answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

• Explanation: Naloxone competitively displaces opioids from mu-opioid receptors, reversing respiratory depression.

72. What is the medical term for difficulty swallowing?

• Answer: Dysphagia

• Explanation: Dysphagia refers to esophageal or pharyngeal swallowing dysfunction.

73. Which type of burn damages the full thickness of skin and subcutaneous tissue?

• Answer: Third-degree

• Explanation: Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis, damaging underlying nerve fibers and tissue.

74. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing Anaphylactic Shock?

• Answer: Administer Intramuscular Epinephrine

• Explanation: Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, and reduces airway mucosal edema.

75. Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs assess for:

• Answer: Meningeal irritation (Meningitis)

• Explanation: Neck stiffness and resistance to leg extension indicate meningeal inflammation.

76. Which endocrine gland is referred to as the “Master Gland”?

• Answer: Pituitary Gland

• Explanation: The anterior and posterior pituitary secretes tropic hormones that control other endocrine glands.

77. What is the standard angle for a Subcutaneous (SC) injection with a standard needle?

• Answer: 45 to 90 degrees

• Explanation: Subcutaneous injections are administered at 45 degrees (or 90 degrees if adequate tissue fold exists).

78. Which position promotes venous return in hypovolemic patients?

• Answer: Modified Trendelenburg (legs elevated)

• Explanation: Elevating the legs increases venous return to the heart without compromising respiratory effort.

79. What is the normal resting heart rate range for an adult?

• Answer: 60 – 100 bpm

• Explanation: Standard adult resting SA node pacing rates range between 60 and 100 beats per minute.

80. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide (Lasix)?

• Answer: Loop Diuretic

• Explanation: Furosemide inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.