Subjects Covered:
Developmental Psychology
Child & Adolescent Psychology
Abnormal Psychology
Clinical Psychology
Child Psychopathology
Psychological Assessment & Testing
Counseling & Psychotherapy
Learning & Behavioral Psychology
Social & Educational Psychology
Research Methods & Statistics in Psychology
Developmental Psychology
Q.1: Who is known as the father of Developmental Psychology and genetic epistemology?
Answer: Jean Piaget
Q.2: According to Jean Piaget, at what age does the sensorimotor stage last?
Answer: From birth to approximately 2 years of age
Q.3: What is the primary characteristic of the preoperational stage in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
Answer: Symbolic thought and egocentrism (ages 2 to 7)
Q.4: At which stage of cognitive development do children begin to understand the concept of conservation?
Answer: Concrete operational stage (ages 7 to 11)
Q.5: Who proposed the Psychosocial Theory of Development consisting of eight stages?
Answer: Erik Erikson
Q.6: What is the core conflict of the first stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development (infancy)?
Answer: Trust versus Mistrust
Q.7: According to Erik Erikson, during which life stage does the crisis of “Identity versus Role Confusion” occur?
Answer: Adolescence
Q.8: Who developed the Sociocultural Theory of Cognitive Development, emphasizing the role of culture and social interaction?
Answer: Lev Vygotsky
Q.9: What does ZPD stand for in Lev Vygotsky’s developmental theory?
Answer: Zone of Proximal Development
Q.10: Who formulated the Theory of Moral Development with three distinct levels (Pre-conventional, Conventional, Post-conventional)?
Answer: Lawrence Kohlberg
Q.11: What is the primary focus of Lawrence Kohlberg’s pre-conventional level of moral reasoning?
Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation, driven by self-interest and avoidance of pain
Q.12: Who is famous for the Strange Situation experiment to study infant attachment styles?
Answer: Mary Ainsworth
Q.13: What are the three primary attachment styles identified by Mary Ainsworth?
Answer: Secure attachment, Anxious-avoidant insecure attachment, and Anxious-resistant (ambivalent) insecure attachment
Q.14: Who conducted the famous surrogate mother experiments with rhesus monkeys to study attachment and contact comfort?
Answer: Harry Harlow
Q.15: What term did John Bowlby use to describe a deep and enduring emotional bond between two people?
Answer: Attachment
Q.16: Who proposed the Ecological Systems Theory, which views child development as a complex system of environmental layers?
Answer: Urie Bronfenbrenner
Q.17: Which system in Bronfenbrenner’s model includes the child’s immediate settings, such as family, school, and peers?
Answer: Microsystem
Q.18: What is the term for the biological growth processes that enable orderly changes in behavior, relatively uninfluenced by experience?
Answer: Maturation
Q.19: What is the term for the decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentations, often used to study infant perception?
Answer: Habituation
Q.20: What is the developmental milestone wherein infants begin to produce repetitive consonant-vowel sounds around 6 months of age?
Answer: Babbling
Q.21: What is the name of the condition characterized by difficulties in social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication, and repetitive behaviors?
Answer: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
Q.22: Who proposed the psychoanalytical theory of psychosexual development involving stages like oral, anal, and phallic?
Answer: Sigmund Freud
Q.23: What term did Sigmund Freud use to describe a young boy’s unconscious sexual desire for his mother and jealousy toward his father?
Answer: Oedipus complex
Q.24: What is the term for the developmental stage during middle childhood where sexual urges remain dormant, according to Freud?
Answer: Latency stage
Q.25: What is the term for a child’s inability to see any perspective other than their own, typical of Piaget’s preoperational stage?
Answer: Egocentrism
Q.26: What is the name of the cognitive ability to understand that altering an object’s appearance does not change its basic properties, such as mass or volume?
Answer: Conservation
Q.27: What is the term for Vygotsky’s concept of temporary support given by a more knowledgeable other during the learning process?
Answer: Scaffolding
Q.28: Which parenting style, identified by Diana Baumrind, is characterized by high demands and low responsiveness?
Answer: Authoritarian parenting
Q.29: Which parenting style features high parental warmth combined with clear, consistent limits and democratic communication?
Answer: Authoritative parenting
Q.30: Which parenting style involves low demands, high responsiveness, and very few rules or disciplinary actions?
Answer: Permissive (indulgent) parenting
Q.31: Which parenting style is marked by low demands and low responsiveness, where parents are largely indifferent or uninvolved?
Answer: Uninvolved (neglectful) parenting
Q.32: What is the term for the period of rapid physical maturation involving hormonal changes that happen during early adolescence?
Answer: Puberty
Q.33: What are the primary sex characteristics that develop during puberty?
Answer: Organs directly related to reproduction, such as ovaries and testes
Q.34: What are the secondary sex characteristics that emerge during puberty?
Answer: Non-reproductive physical signs of sexual maturation, such as breast development, voice deepening, and facial/body hair
Q.35: Who introduced the concept of the “inferiority complex” and emphasized social interest in child development?
Answer: Alfred Adler
Q.36: What term did Noam Chomsky propose to describe the innate biological mechanism that enables children to acquire language?
Answer: Language Acquisition Device (LAD)
Q.37: What is the earliest stage of language production in infants before single words appear, usually consisting of crying and cooing?
Answer: Prelinguistic communication
Q.38: What is the term for using a single word to express a complete, complex idea, common in toddlers?
Answer: Holophrase
Q.39: What is the term for the speech pattern used by adults when talking to infants, characterized by a high pitch and exaggerated intonation?
Answer: Infant-directed speech (Parentese or Motherese)
Q.40: What is the psychological term for a child’s understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, heard, or touched?
Answer: Object permanence
Q.41: At what approximate age do infants typically master the concept of object permanence in Piaget’s theory?
Answer: Around 8 to 12 months of age
Q.42: What is the term for an infant’s distress when separated from their primary caregiver, typically peaking around 9 to 14 months?
Answer: Separation anxiety
Q.43: What is the term for the fear of unfamiliar people that frequently emerges in infants around 6 to 8 months of age?
Answer: Stranger anxiety
Q.44: Who developed the classic visual cliff experiment to study depth perception in human infants and animals?
Answer: Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk
Q.45: What is the term for the relatively stable, biologically rooted patterns of mood and emotional reactivity present from early infancy?
Answer: Temperament
Q.46: What were the three main temperament categories identified by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess in their longitudinal study?
Answer: Easy, Difficult, and Slow-to-warm-up
Q.47: What is the term for the match between a child’s temperament and the environmental demands and expectations they face?
Answer: Goodness of fit
Q.48: What type of developmental study design compares participants of different age groups at a single point in time?
Answer: Cross-sectional study
Q.49: What type of developmental study follows the same group of participants repeatedly over an extended period?
Answer: Longitudinal study
Q.50: What is the term for developmental changes that result from a specific historical event shared by a particular age group (e.g., a war or pandemic)?
Answer: Cohort effect
Q.51: What is the term for the threadlike structures made of DNA molecules that contain genes?
Answer: Chromosomes
Q.52: How many pairs of chromosomes are normally present in a human somatic cell?
Answer: 23 pairs (46 total)
Q.53: What is the term for an individual’s genetic makeup, distinct from their observable traits?
Answer: Genotype
Q.54: What is the term for an individual’s observable physical and behavioral characteristics, determined by genotype and environment?
Answer: Phenotype
Q.55: What genetic disorder is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21)?
Answer: Down syndrome
Q.56: What is the term for any agent, such as a chemical, virus, or radiation, that can cause birth defects during prenatal development?
Answer: Teratogen
Q.57: Which prenatal period spans from conception to approximately 2 weeks, ending with implantation in the uterine wall?
Answer: Germinal period
Q.58: Which prenatal period lasts from week 2 through week 8, during which major organ systems and body structures develop?
Answer: Embryonic period
Q.59: Which prenatal period spans from week 9 until birth, characterized by rapid growth and functional maturation?
Answer: Fetal period
Q.60: What is the name of the standardized assessment tool administered to newborns at 1 and 5 minutes after birth to evaluate health?
Answer: Apgar scale
Q.61: What five factors are evaluated using the Apgar scale?
Answer: Appearance (skin color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration (breathing rate)
Q.62: What is the term for the involuntary, automatic motor responses to specific stimuli seen in newborn infants?
Answer: Reflexes
Q.63: Which newborn reflex causes an infant to turn its head toward anything that strokes its cheek or mouth area?
Answer: Rooting reflex
Q.64: Which newborn reflex involves the infant spreading and then unspreading its arms in response to a sudden loud noise or loss of support?
Answer: Moro reflex
Q.65: Which newborn reflex causes an infant to automatically grasp any object placed firmly in its palm?
Answer: Palmar grasp reflex
Q.66: What is the developmental principle stating that growth proceeds from the head downward toward the feet?
Answer: Cephalocaudal trend
Q.67: What is the developmental principle stating that growth proceeds from the center of the body outward toward the extremities?
Answer: Proximodistal trend
Q.68: What is the medical term for the irreversible intellectual disability caused by an inherited metabolic disorder where the body cannot break down phenylalanine?
Answer: Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Q.69: Who proposed the Triarchic Theory of Intelligence, which includes analytical, creative, and practical components?
Answer: Robert Sternberg
Q.70: Who proposed the Theory of Multiple Intelligences, identifying distinct domains such as linguistic, musical, and spatial?
Answer: Howard Gardner
Q.71: What term did Erik Erikson use to describe the developmental crisis of early childhood (ages 3 to 6), focusing on purposeful activity versus feelings of guilt?
Answer: Initiative versus Guilt
Q.72: What is the core crisis of middle childhood (ages 6 to 12) according to Erikson’s stages?
Answer: Industry versus Inferiority
Q.73: What is the term for the stage in Erikson’s theory where young adults seek to establish close, committed bonds with others?
Answer: Intimacy versus Isolation
Q.74: What term did Erik Erikson use to describe the crisis of middle adulthood, centered on contributing to the next generation through work, mentoring, or parenting?
Answer: Generativity versus Stagnation
Q.75: What is the final stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development, involving reflection on and acceptance of one’s life?
Answer: Integrity versus Despair
Q.76: What is the term for a child’s ability to understand that others have beliefs, desires, intentions, and perspectives different from their own?
Answer: Theory of Mind
Q.77: At what approximate age do children typically begin to pass false-belief tasks, indicating the development of a Theory of Mind?
Answer: Around 4 to 5 years of age
Q.78: What is the term for learning through observing others and imitating their behavior, famously studied by Albert Bandura?
Answer: Observational learning (Social Learning Theory)
Q.79: What was the name of Albert Bandura’s famous experiment demonstrating that children imitate aggressive behaviors observed in adults?
Answer: Bobo doll experiment
Q.80: What is the term for a mental framework or organizational structure used to categorize and interpret information, according to Jean Piaget?
Answer: Schema
Q.81: What is the process of fitting new information into existing schemas, as defined by Piaget?
Answer: Assimilation
Q.82: What is the process of altering existing schemas or creating new ones to accommodate new information that does not fit?
Answer: Accommodation
Q.83: What is the term for the gradual loss of neural connections and brain structures that are not used frequently during development?
Answer: Pruning (Synaptic pruning)
Q.84: What is the term for the fatty substance that insulates nerve fibers and increases the speed of neural impulse transmission?
Answer: Myelin (Myelin sheath)
Q.85: What is the term for the lifelong process by which individuals acquire the norms, values, behaviors, and social skills appropriate to their society?
Answer: Socialization
Q.86: What term describes play where children play side-by-side with similar toys without interacting much with each other, common in toddlers?
Answer: Parallel play
Q.87: What type of play involves children actively playing together, sharing materials, and engaging in organized games with mutual interaction?
Answer: Cooperative play
Q.88: What is the term for self-directed speech that children use to regulate their own behavior and problem-solving, highlighted by Vygotsky?
Answer: Private speech
Q.89: What is the term for a child’s increasing ability to manage and modulate their emotions, attention, and behaviors in response to environmental demands?
Answer: Self-regulation
Q.90: What is the term for the developmental milestone where an infant can support their own weight and move around on hands and knees, usually around 8 to 10 months?
Answer: Crawling
Q.91: What is the term for the transition period between childhood and adulthood characterized by rapid physical, psychological, and social changes?
Answer: Adolescence
Q.92: Who proposed the concept of “emerging adulthood” to describe the distinct life phase between adolescence and full adulthood (roughly ages 18 to 25)?
Answer: Jeffrey Arnett
Q.93: What is the term for the personal fable and imaginary audience phenomena that characterize adolescent thinking, according to David Elkind?
Answer: Adolescent egocentrism
Q.94: What term did David Elkind use to describe the adolescent belief that one is unique, special, and invulnerable to harm?
Answer: Personal fable
Q.95: What term did David Elkind use to describe the adolescent belief that everyone else is constantly observing and evaluating their appearance and behavior?
Answer: Imaginary audience
Q.96: What is the term for the stage of cognitive development proposed by Piaget that emerges in adolescence, characterized by abstract and hypothetical reasoning?
Answer: Formal operational stage
Q.97: What term did James Marcia use to describe the various states of adolescent identity development based on exploration and commitment?
Answer: Identity statuses (Identity diffusion, Foreclosure, Moratorium, and Achievement)
Q.98: What is the term for the irreversible cessation of menstruation, marking the end of a woman’s reproductive years in middle adulthood?
Answer: Menopause
Q.99: What is the term for the decline in general mental ability and processing speed that occurs during old age, contrasted with crystallized intelligence?
Answer: Fluid intelligence
Q.100: What is the term for accumulated knowledge, verbal skills, and life experiences that tend to remain stable or even increase with age?
Answer: Crystallized intelligence
Q.101: Who is the pioneer of attachment theory who formulated the initial concepts regarding infant-caregiver separation?
Answer: John Bowlby
Q.102: What is the term for a child’s ability to bounce back or recover successfully from adversity, trauma, or significant stress?
Answer: Resilience
Q.103: Who developed the classic moral dilemma involving “Heinz” to test levels of moral reasoning in individuals?
Answer: Lawrence Kohlberg
Q.104: What term did Erik Erikson use to describe the period of intense self-exploration and identity crisis that adolescents typically undergo?
Answer: Psychosocial moratorium
Q.105: What is the term for the biological mechanism where unused synapses in the developing brain are eliminated to increase efficiency?
Answer: Synaptic pruning
Q.106: Who conducted the famous study on the development of reading readiness and maturation using identical twin control groups?
Answer: Myrtle McGraw
Q.107: What is the term for a mental script or framework for routine social interactions and events, such as going to a restaurant?
Answer: Event schema (or Script)
Q.108: What term did Jean Piaget use to describe children who are excessively focused on one salient dimension of an object while ignoring others?
Answer: Centration
Q.109: What is the term for the linguistic error where a child applies a rule too broadly, such as saying “goed” instead of “went”?
Answer: Overregularization
Q.110: What is the term for the linguistic error where a child uses a word too narrowly, such as using “dog” only to refer to their family pet?
Answer: Underextension
Q.111: What is the term for the linguistic error where a child uses a single word to describe a broader category than appropriate, such as calling all four-legged animals “dog”?
Answer: Overextension
Q.112: Which hormone is primarily responsible for triggering uterine contractions during childbirth and plays a vital role in maternal bonding?
Answer: Oxytocin
Q.113: What is the term for the genetic principle where one trait completely masks or hides the expression of an alternative trait?
Answer: Dominant-recessive inheritance
Q.114: What is the term for traits and characteristics that are influenced by multiple genes acting together, such as intelligence or height?
Answer: Polygenic inheritance
Q.115: What is the term for the developmental phenomenon where exposure to certain environmental stimuli is necessary for normal development during a specific time window?
Answer: Critical period
Q.116: What is the term for a flexible time window during which an organism is especially sensitive to environmental influences, though development can still occur outside it?
Answer: Sensitive period
Q.117: Who proposed the Ethological Theory of development, emphasizing evolutionary roots and innate behaviors in animal and human bonding?
Answer: Konrad Lorenz
Q.118: What behavioral phenomenon did Konrad Lorenz discover in birds where hatchlings form an immediate attachment to the first moving object they see?
Answer: Imprinting
Q.119: What is the term for the psychological test designed by developmental psychologists to measure self-recognition in toddlers using a mirror mark?
Answer: Rouge test (Mirror self-recognition test)
Q.120: At what approximate age do most typically developing infants pass the mirror self-recognition test?
Answer: Around 18 to 24 months of age
Q.121: What is the term for the social smile that infants direct toward human faces, typically appearing around 6 to 8 weeks of age?
Answer: Social smile
Q.122: What term did Mary Ainsworth use to describe mothers who are sensitive, responsive, and prompt in attending to their infant’s signals?
Answer: Sensitive responsiveness
Q.123: Which insecure attachment style is characterized by an infant showing confusion, contradictory behaviors, and freezing around the caregiver?
Answer: Disorganized-disoriented attachment
Q.124: What is the term for peer nomination techniques used by developmental researchers to classify children into categories like popular, rejected, or neglected?
Answer: Sociometric status
Q.125: What is the term for aggressive behavior used specifically as a means to achieve a desired goal or obtain an object, common in early childhood?
Answer: Instrumental aggression
Q.126: What is the term for aggressive behavior intended explicitly to harm another person, damage their relationships, or hurt their feelings?
Answer: Relational aggression (or Hostile aggression)
Q.127: Who developed the Social Information Processing (SIP) model to explain how children encode and interpret social cues to formulate aggressive or prosocial responses?
Answer: Kenneth Dodge
Q.128: What is the term for a child’s understanding of biological processes, such as recognizing that living things grow, heal, and eventually die?
Answer: Naive biology (or Folk biology)
Q.129: What term did Jean Piaget use to describe the preoperational child’s belief that inanimate objects have life, feelings, and intentional consciousness?
Answer: Animism
Q.130: What is the term for the preoperational tendency to attribute human-made phenomena to divine or human creation, such as believing mountains were built by people?
Answer: Artificialism
Q.131: What is the term for the understanding that physical gender remains constant over time, even if a person changes their clothing or hair length?
Answer: Gender constancy
Q.132: What are the three sequential stages of gender constancy proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg?
Answer: Gender labeling, Gender stability, and Gender consistency
Q.133: What is the term for a cognitive structure or set of beliefs about appropriate behaviors, traits, and roles for males and females within a culture?
Answer: Gender schema
Child & Adolescent Psychology
Q.134: What is the term for the cognitive developmental milestone where a child understands that actions can be reversed, such as knowing deflated clay can be rolled back into a ball?
Answer: Reversibility
Q.135: What term did Jean Piaget use to describe the inability to mentally reverse an action or sequence of events, common in the preoperational stage?
Answer: Irreversibility
Q.136: What is the term for the tendency of young children to focus on height while ignoring width when judging the volume of liquid in differently shaped containers?
Answer: Centration
Q.137: What is the term for the specialized speech style used by children and adults when talking to younger children, characterized by simplified grammar and higher pitch?
Answer: Child-directed speech (CDS)
Q.138: What is the term for the psychological concept that describes how biological dispositions combine with environmental stress to trigger psychological disorders?
Answer: Diathesis-stress model
Q.139: Who proposed the hierarchy of human needs, which developmental psychologists often use to understand children’s motivational stages from safety to self-actualization?
Answer: Abraham Maslow
Q.140: What is the term for the ability to monitor one’s own and others’ feelings and emotions, discriminate among them, and use this information to guide thinking?
Answer: Emotional intelligence (EQ)
Q.141: Who are the two primary psychologists credited with developing the concept and measurement of emotional intelligence?
Answer: Peter Salovey and John Mayer
Q.142: What is the term for the developmental disorder characterized by severe and persistent difficulties in impulse control, hyperactivity, and inattention?
Answer: Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Q.143: What are the three primary presentations or subtypes recognized under Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
Answer: Predominantly inattentive presentation, Predominantly hyperactive-impulsive presentation, and Combined presentation
Q.144: What is the term for learning disabilities characterized by specific and significant impairments in reading acquisition and word recognition?
Answer: Dyslexia
Q.145: What is the term for a specific learning disorder that affects a child’s mathematical ability, numerical understanding, and calculation skills?
Answer: Dyscalculia
Q.146: What is the term for a neurological learning disability that impairs a person’s handwriting ability and fine motor skills?
Answer: Dysgraphia
Q.147: What is the term for an eating disorder typically emerging in adolescence, characterized by self-starvation, intense fear of weight gain, and distorted body image?
Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Q.148: What is the term for an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors like purging?
Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Q.149: What is the term for the psychological defense mechanism where a child or adolescent retreats to an earlier, more infantile stage of development under extreme stress?
Answer: Regression
Q.150: What is the term for the defense mechanism where an unacceptable impulse or feeling is channeled into a socially acceptable, productive activity?
Answer: Sublimation
Q.151: What is the term for the defense mechanism in which a person unconsciously attributes their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto another person?
Answer: Projection
Q.152: What is the term for a child’s understanding that physical matter does not change in quantity when its container, shape, or apparent size changes?
Answer: Conservation of mass/volume
Q.153: What is the term for the type of reasoning where a child draws conclusions about specific instances based on general principles, mastered in later childhood?
Answer: Deductive reasoning
Q.154: What is the term for the type of reasoning where a child moves from specific observations to broader generalizations, typical of early scientific thinking?
Answer: Inductive reasoning
Q.155: What term did Erik Erikson use to describe the psychological state of young people who fail to find a clear sense of self and drift aimlessly?
Answer: Role confusion (Identity diffusion)
Q.156: According to James Marcia, which identity status describes an adolescent who has explored various options and made firm commitments to goals and values?
Answer: Identity achievement
Q.157: According to James Marcia, which identity status describes an adolescent who has committed to an identity without exploring alternatives, often adopting parental values?
Answer: Identity foreclosure
Q.158: According to James Marcia, which identity status describes an adolescent who is currently experiencing an identity crisis and actively exploring options without commitment?
Answer: Moratorium
Q.159: According to James Marcia, which identity status describes an adolescent who has neither explored options nor made any commitments?
Answer: Identity diffusion
Q.160: What is the term for the cognitive process of mentally executing actions or operations on objects, which is central to Piaget’s concrete operational stage?
Answer: Operational thinking
Q.161: What is the term for the unique vocabulary explosion that occurs in toddlers around 18 months of age, where word learning accelerates dramatically?
Answer: Vocabulary spurt (Naming explosion)
Q.162: What is the term for early multi-word sentences produced by toddlers that omit non-essential grammar words like “is,” “the,” or “and”?
Answer: Telegraphic speech
Q.163: What is the term for the emotional bond that forms between an infant and multiple secondary caregivers, such as grandparents or siblings?
Answer: Secondary attachment
Q.164: What is the term for a temporary regression in toilet training or sleeping habits experienced by young children when a new sibling is born?
Answer: Sibling rivalry adjustment reaction
Q.165: What is the term for the developmental study approach that assesses different age groups repeatedly over time, combining cross-sectional and longitudinal methods?
Answer: Sequential design study
Q.166: What is the term for the educational approach that emphasizes individualized learning, independence, and multi-age classrooms, founded by an Italian physician?
Answer: Montessori education (founded by Maria Montessori)
Q.167: What is the term for the phenomenon where children raised in institutionalized orphanages exhibit cognitive, social, and emotional developmental delays?
Answer: Institutional deprivation syndrome (or Hospitalism)
Q.168: What is the term for the subtle or overt ways in which parents and society convey different expectations for boys and girls regarding behavior and roles?
Answer: Gender socialization
Q.169: What is the term for behavior intended to help others altruistically, such as sharing, comforting, or cooperating, which develops during early childhood?
Answer: Prosocial behavior
Q.170: What is the term for the ability to experience and understand another person’s emotional state or perspective from their point of view?
Answer: Empathy
Q.171: What is the term for the emotional reaction that involves feeling sorrow or concern for another person’s suffering, distinct from pure personal distress?
Answer: Sympathy
Q.172: What is the term for the developmental milestone where an infant can transfer an object smoothly from one hand to the other?
Answer: Hand-to-hand transfer (typically around 5 to 6 months)
Q.173: What is the term for the precise coordination of small muscles in movements involving the hands and fingers, such as writing or buttoning?
Answer: Fine motor skills
Q.174: What is the term for the coordination of large muscle groups responsible for whole-body movements like running, jumping, and climbing?
Answer: Gross motor skills
Q.175: What is the term for the genetic condition caused by an extra X chromosome in males (XXY), leading to distinct physical and developmental traits?
Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Q.176: What is the term for the genetic condition in females where all or part of one of the X chromosomes is missing (XO), affecting growth and development?
Answer: Turner syndrome
Q.177: What is the term for the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability and autism symptoms, caused by a mutation on the X chromosome?
Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Q.178: What is the term for the psychological principle stating that development occurs in a smooth, continuous upward curve, as opposed to distinct steps?
Answer: Continuous development model
Q.179: What is the term for the psychological principle stating that development occurs in distinct, qualitative stages separated by rapid transitions?
Answer: Discontinuous development model
Q.180: What is the term for a research method where a researcher observes children directly in their natural environment without intervention, such as a classroom?
Answer: Naturalistic observation
Q.181: What is the term for a structured research procedure where children are placed in a controlled environment or task designed to elicit a specific behavior?
Answer: Structured observation
Q.182: What is the term for the statistical measure that expresses the extent to which two developmental variables are linearly related to each other?
Answer: Correlation coefficient
Q.183: What is the term for the experimental research design that establishes cause-and-effect relationships by randomly assigning participants to conditions?
Answer: Experimental design
Q.184: What is the term for the variable that is manipulated or controlled by the researcher in an experimental developmental study?
Answer: Independent variable
Q.185: What is the term for the measured outcome or behavioral response that is expected to change as a result of experimental manipulation?
Answer: Dependent variable
Q.186: What is the term for the ethical principle in developmental research that ensures participants or their legal guardians understand study risks before agreeing?
Answer: Informed consent
Q.187: What is the term used when obtaining research agreement from minors who are too young to give legally binding informed consent?
Answer: Assent
Q.188: What is the ethical requirement in psychological research to ensure that all data collected about a child or family remains private and protected?
Answer: Confidentiality
Q.189: What is the term for the procedure where researchers fully explain the true purpose and hypothesis of a study to participants after completion?
Answer: Debriefing
Q.190: What is the term for the cognitive error where children judge the amount of a substance based purely on its spatial layout or length rather than volume?
Answer: Conservation error
Q.191: What is the term for the developmental milestone where an infant sits unsupported without falling, typically achieved around 6 to 7 months?
Answer: Independent sitting
Q.192: What is the term for the transition phase of adolescence marked by a sudden, intense spike in growth rate and skeletal maturation?
Answer: Adolescent growth spurt
Q.193: What is the term for the first menstrual cycle in female adolescents, marking a primary milestone of female puberty?
Answer: Menarche
Q.194: What is the term for the first ejaculation of viable sperm in male adolescents, marking a primary milestone of male puberty?
Answer: Spermarche
Q.195: What is the term for the cognitive skill that allows children to hold, update, and manipulate multiple pieces of information in their mind simultaneously?
Answer: Working memory
Q.196: What is the term for the executive function skill that enables children to resist distractions, suppress impulsive reactions, and delay gratification?
Answer: Inhibitory control (or Response inhibition)
Q.197: What is the term for the mental flexibility that allows children to switch between different rules, tasks, or perspectives seamlessly?
Answer: Cognitive flexibility
Q.198: What is the term for the famous longitudinal experiment by Walter Mischel that tested impulse control and delayed gratification in young children using treats?
Answer: Marshmallow test
Q.199: What is the term for the developmental framework emphasizing that children actively construct their own knowledge through interactions with the physical world?
Answer: Constructivism (Piagetian theory)
Q.200: What is the term for the socio-emotional climate of the home environment that influences a child’s security, attachment, and overall psychological adjustment?
Answer: Family system dynamics
Q.201: Who is known for conducting the classic longitudinal study on temperament involving the New York Longitudinal Study (NYLS)?
Answer: Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess
Q.202: What term is used to describe a child’s ability to monitor, evaluate, and plan their own learning strategies and cognitive processes?
Answer: Metacognition
Q.203: What is the term for the developmental phenomenon where exposure to teratogens causes structural or functional defects during prenatal growth?
Answer: Teratogenicity
Q.204: Which psychoanalytic defense mechanism involves redirecting unacceptable sexual or aggressive urges into socially valued, higher-level channels?
Answer: Sublimation
Q.205: What is the term for the parenting style that lacks both responsiveness and demandingness, often leading to juvenile delinquency and poor self-esteem?
Answer: Uninvolved (neglectful) parenting
Q.206: What is the term for the psychological concept where a child assumes that everyone shares their exact viewpoint, feelings, and experiences?
Answer: Egocentrism
Q.207: Who developed the psychoanalytic theory that emphasizes ego psychology and the lifelong impact of social roles across the lifespan?
Answer: Erik Erikson
Q.208: What is the term for the developmental milestone where an infant can pick up small objects using the thumb and forefinger (pincer grasp)?
Answer: Pincer grasp (typically emerges around 9 to 10 months)
Q.209: What is the term for the clinical condition where an infant fails to grow and develop normally due to severe emotional or physical deprivation?
Answer: Failure to thrive (FTT)
Q.210: What is the term for the type of memory that retains personal experiences and specific events tied to a particular time and place?
Answer: Episodic memory
Q.211: What is the term for the form of memory that stores general world knowledge, facts, and language meanings independent of personal experience?
Answer: Semantic memory
Q.212: What is the term for the memory system that holds unconscious motor skills, habits, and classical conditioning effects, such as riding a bike?
Answer: Procedural memory (Implicit memory)
Q.213: Who is recognized for formulating the Social Learning Theory later expanded into Social Cognitive Theory?
Answer: Albert Bandura
Q.214: What term did Lev Vygotsky use to describe the actual developmental level versus the potential level a child can reach with guidance?
Answer: Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
Q.215: What is the term for the specialized educational strategy where older or more capable peers tutor younger children within the Zone of Proximal Development?
Answer: Peer tutoring (or Peer collaboration)
Q.216: What is the term for the stage in cognitive development where children can perform mental operations only on physical, tangible objects and actual events?
Answer: Concrete operational stage
Q.217: What is the term for the moral reasoning stage in Kohlberg’s theory where individuals follow rules strictly to maintain social order and fulfill societal duties?
Answer: Law and order orientation (Conventional level)
Q.218: What is the term for Kohlberg’s highest stage of moral reasoning, where laws are viewed as flexible instruments for protecting universal human rights?
Answer: Universal ethical principle orientation (Post-conventional level)
Q.219: What is the term for the emotional and behavioral reaction of an infant when a stranger approaches, typically emerging around 6 to 8 months?
Answer: Stranger anxiety
Q.220: What is the term for the psychological study of how psychological structures and behaviors change across the entire lifespan from conception to death?
Answer: Developmental psychology
Q.221: What is the term for the genetic disorder caused by a deletion on chromosome 15, resulting in insatiable appetite, obesity, and intellectual disability?
Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Q.222: What is the term for a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by persistent deficits in social communication and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior?
Answer: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
Q.223: Who formulated the Attachment Theory, asserting that infants possess an innate biological need to attach to a primary caregiver for survival?
Answer: John Bowlby
Q.224: What is the term for the defense mechanism in which a person expresses the exact opposite feeling or behavior of their true, unacceptable unconscious impulses?
Answer: Reaction formation
Q.225: What is the term for the psychological process where an infant learns to distinguish their mother’s face, voice, and scent from all other stimuli?
Answer: Perceptual narrowing (or Maternal recognition)
Q.226: What is the term for the ability of the brain to reorganize neural pathways and form new connections throughout childhood in response to learning or injury?
Answer: Neuroplasticity
Q.227: What is the term for the reflex where an infant stroke-stimulates the sole of the foot, causing the toes to fan out and foot to turn inward?
Answer: Babinski reflex
Q.228: What is the term for the biological clock mechanism located in the hypothalamus that regulates developmental milestones like the onset of puberty?
Answer: Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis
Q.229: What is the term for the type of play where children invent and act out imaginary roles, scenarios, and fantasy characters?
Answer: Sociodramatic play (or Pretend play)
Q.230: What is the term for the developmental framework that views human growth as a continuous interaction between biological, psychological, and social factors?
Answer: Biopsychosocial model
Q.231: What is the term for the condition marked by chronic motor and vocal tics that begins during childhood or adolescence, famously associated with coprolalia?
Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Q.232: What is the term for the early phase of language development where children understand significantly more words than they are able to speak?
Answer: Receptive language lag (or Receptive outpacing expressive language)
Q.233: What is the term for the clinical assessment scale used to measure cognitive, motor, and behavioral development in infants from 1 to 42 months?
Answer: Bayley Scales of Infant Development
Q.234: What is the term for the psychological tendency of individuals to recall personal memories from adolescence and early adulthood more vividly than other life periods?
Answer: Reminiscence bump
Q.235: What is the term for the evolutionary perspective in developmental psychology that investigates how natural selection shapes human psychological traits and behaviors?
Answer: Evolutionary developmental psychology
Q.236: What is the term for the social learning process where children acquire gender-typed behaviors and attitudes by observing and imitating same-sex models?
Answer: Social learning of gender
Q.237: What is the term for the psychological assessment method where children project inner feelings, conflicts, and motivations onto ambiguous stimuli like inkblots or pictures?
Answer: Projective techniques (e.g., Rorschach or TAT)
Q.238: What is the term for the cognitive milestone where a child recognizes that changing the shape of a container does not alter the total volume of liquid?
Answer: Conservation of liquid volume
Q.239: What is the term for the developmental milestone where an infant can roll over from front to back and back to front, typically around 4 to 5 months?
Answer: Rolling over
Q.240: What is the term for the instructional method where teachers gradually withdraw assistance as a student masters a new skill, directly tied to Vygotsky’s theory?
Answer: Scaffolding
Q.241: What is the term for the psychological defense mechanism where an individual shifts an unacceptable impulse or emotion from a dangerous target to a safe, substitute target?
Answer: Displacement
Q.242: What is the term for the specialized language impairment where a child experiences significant delays in spoken language development despite normal hearing and intelligence?
Answer: Specific Language Impairment (SLI)
Q.243: What is the term for the developmental milestone where an infant can pull themselves up to a standing position by holding onto furniture, usually around 8 to 11 months?
Answer: Pulling to stand
Q.244: What is the term for the psychological phenomenon where a child or adolescent adopts beliefs and values from their peer group that directly oppose parental standards?
Answer: Peer conformity (or Adolescent counter-culture)
Q.245: What is the term for the developmental framework that focuses on how individuals encode, store, retrieve, and manipulate information as they grow older?
Answer: Information-processing theory
Abnormal Psychology
Q.246: What is the official diagnostic manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) used for classifying mental disorders?
Answer: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5 / DSM-5-TR)
Q.247: What is the term for the classification system of diseases and mental disorders published by the World Health Organization (WHO)?
Answer: International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11)
Q.248: What is the term for psychological disorders characterized by distressing, persistent anxiety or maladaptive behaviors used to reduce anxiety?
Answer: Anxiety disorders
Q.249: What is the term for a sudden episode of intense dread, terror, and physical symptoms like heart palpitations and shortness of breath?
Answer: Panic attack
Q.250: What is the term for an irrational, persistent fear and avoidance of a specific object, activity, or situation?
Answer: Specific phobia
Q.251: What is the term for the anxiety disorder characterized by persistent, uncontrollable, and excessive worry about various everyday things?
Answer: Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Q.252: What is the term for a disorder characterized by unwanted, repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and actions (compulsions)?
Answer: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Q.253: What is the term for the psychological disorder that follows experiencing or witnessing a profoundly traumatic event, marked by flashbacks and hypervigilance?
Answer: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Q.254: What is the term for physical or medical symptoms that mimic a physical disease or neurological condition but have no organic or physiological basis?
Answer: Somatic symptom disorder (or Conversion disorder)
Q.255: What is the term for a dissociative disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states within a single individual?
Answer: Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
Q.256: What is the term for a severe mood disorder marked by alternating periods of extreme depression and manic episodes?
Answer: Bipolar disorder
Q.257: What is the term for a mood state characterized by abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep?
Answer: Mania
Q.258: What is the term for a severe psychological disorder characterized by major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior, including hallucinations and delusions?
Answer: Schizophrenia
Q.259: What is the term for false sensory experiences perceived without any external stimuli, such as hearing voices?
Answer: Hallucinations
Q.260: What is the term for fixed, false beliefs that are deeply held despite clear contradictory evidence, such as persecutory or grandiose beliefs?
Answer: Delusions
Q.261: What is the term for the classification of schizophrenia symptoms that represent an excess or distortion of normal functions, such as hallucinations and delusions?
Answer: Positive symptoms
Q.262: What is the term for the classification of schizophrenia symptoms that represent a deficit or loss of normal functions, such as flat affect and alogia?
Answer: Negative symptoms
Q.263: What is the term for enduring patterns of inner experience and behavior that deviate markedly from cultural expectations and cause severe distress or impairment?
Answer: Personality disorders
Q.264: Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often lacking empathy or remorse?
Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Q.265: Which personality disorder features instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, affects, and marked impulsivity?
Answer: Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
Q.266: Which personality disorder is marked by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a constant need for admiration, and a lack of empathy?
Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Q.267: What is the term for neurodevelopmental disorders characterized by deficits in intellectual functioning alongside impairments in adaptive behavior?
Answer: Intellectual disability (Intellectual developmental disorder)
Q.268: What is the term for a condition characterized by a significant drop in cognitive functioning and memory, typically occurring in late adulthood due to neurodegeneration?
Answer: Dementia (or Major Neurocognitive Disorder)
Q.269: What is the most common neurodegenerative cause of dementia, characterized by amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain?
Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Q.270: What is the term for the psychological perspective that attributes abnormal behavior to biological abnormalities, such as brain chemistry or genetic inheritance?
Answer: Biological model (Medical model)
Q.271: What is the term for the psychological perspective that views abnormal behavior as the result of unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood experiences?
Answer: Psychoanalytic (Psychodynamic) model
Q.272: What is the term for the therapeutic approach based on classical and operant conditioning principles used to modify maladaptive behaviors?
Answer: Behavior therapy
Q.273: What is the term for the cognitive therapy approach developed by Aaron Beck, focused on identifying and restructuring distorted automatic thoughts?
Answer: Cognitive therapy
Q.274: What is the term for Carl Rogers’ humanistic therapy approach that creates a safe, accepting environment featuring unconditional positive regard?
Answer: Person-centered therapy (Client-centered therapy)
Q.275: What is the term for the behavioral technique used to treat phobias by pairing a feared stimulus with deep relaxation until anxiety is extinguished?
Answer: Systematic desensitization
Q.276: What is the term for a severe feeding and eating disorder where individuals restrict energy intake leading to significantly low body weight?
Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Q.277: What is the term for a neurodevelopmental disorder typically diagnosed in childhood marked by chronic motor and vocal tics?
Answer: Tourette’s disorder
Q.278: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder involving recurrent, intense sexual arousal from non-human objects or non-consenting partners?
Answer: Paraphilia
Q.279: What is the term for the psychological state characterized by intense sadness, loss of interest in activities, and feelings of worthlessness lasting at least two weeks?
Answer: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)
Q.280: What is the term for a milder, chronic form of depression lasting for at least two years in adults?
Answer: Persistent depressive disorder (Dysthymia)
Q.281: What is the term for the psychological phenomenon where individuals attribute failure to internal, stable, and global factors, increasing vulnerability to depression?
Answer: Learned helplessness (or Depressive attributional style)
Q.282: What is the term for a somatic disorder where a person is excessively preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious, undiagnosed medical illness?
Answer: Illness anxiety disorder (Hypochondriasis)
Q.283: What is the term for a dissociative symptom involving a feeling of detachment from one’s own body or mental processes, as if observing oneself from the outside?
Answer: Depersonalization
Q.284: What is the term for a dissociative symptom involving a feeling that the surrounding environment or world is unreal, dreamlike, or artificial?
Answer: Derealization
Q.285: What is the term for a cluster of personality disorders in the DSM that includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders, often described as odd or eccentric?
Answer: Cluster A personality disorders
Q.286: What is the term for the cluster of personality disorders featuring dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviors, which includes antisocial and borderline disorders?
Answer: Cluster B personality disorders
Q.287: What is the term for the cluster of personality disorders characterized by anxious or fearful behaviors, including avoidant and dependent personality disorders?
Answer: Cluster C personality disorders
Q.288: What is the term for an enduring pattern of avoiding social interactions due to extreme fear of rejection, despite a desire for affection?
Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Q.289: What is the term for a pervasive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation?
Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Q.290: What is the term for a personality disorder characterized by an excessive obsession with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental/interpersonal control?
Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)
Q.291: What is the term for the clinical procedure where electrical currents are passed through the brain to trigger a brief seizure, used primarily for treatment-resistant depression?
Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
Q.292: What is the term for biomedical drug treatments classified as neuroleptics used primarily to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
Answer: Antipsychotic medications
Q.293: What is the term for the class of mood-stabilizing chemical elements commonly prescribed to treat bipolar disorder manic episodes?
Answer: Lithium salts (Lithium)
Q.294: What is the term for class of antidepressant drugs that work by blocking the reuptake of serotonin in the synaptic cleft (e.g., Prozac)?
Answer: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Q.295: What is the term for the psychological model that proposes mental disorders develop from a combination of biological vulnerability and environmental stressors?
Answer: Diathesis-stress model
Q.296: What is the term for the clinical diagnostic evaluation method that uses standardized questions and criteria to assess mental health disorders?
Answer: Structured clinical interview
Q.297: What is the term for a psychological disorder characterized by an inability to recall important personal information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature?
Answer: Dissociative amnesia
Q.298: What is the term for a rare dissociative state where an individual suddenly and unexpectedly travels away from home and assumes a new identity with amnesia for the past?
Answer: Dissociative fugue
Q.299: What is the term for an impulse-control disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to steal items that are generally not needed for personal use or monetary value?
Answer: Kleptomania
Q.300: What is the term for an impulse-control disorder characterized by recurrent failure to resist impulses to set fires intentionally and deliberately?
Answer: Pyromania
Q.301: What is the term for the neurodevelopmental disorder marked by repetitive, seemingly driven, and nonfunctional motor behavior, such as head banging or self-biting?
Answer: Stereotypic movement disorder
Q.302: What is the term for a feeding disorder where an infant or child persistently eats non-nutritive, non-food substances like paper, dirt, or paint chips for at least one month?
Answer: Pica
Q.303: What is the term for an eating disorder where an individual repeatedly regurgitates food over the course of at least one month, which may be rechewed, reswallowed, or spit out?
Answer: Rumination disorder
Q.304: What is the term for an elimination disorder characterized by repeated voiding of urine into bed or clothes, whether involuntary or intentional, in children aged at least 5 years?
Answer: Enuresis
Q.305: What is the term for an elimination disorder characterized by the repeated passage of feces into inappropriate places, such as clothing or the floor, by someone over age 4?
Answer: Encopresis
Q.306: What is the term for a sleep-wake disorder involving repeated awakenings with abrupt awakening from sleep, usually beginning with a panicky scream, during non-REM sleep?
Answer: Non-REM sleep arousal disorder (Sleep terror type)
Q.307: What is the term for a sleep disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of vivid, terrifying dreams that are remembered upon awakening, typically occurring during REM sleep?
Answer: Nightmare disorder
Q.308: What is the term for a parasomnia where an individual rises from bed during sleep and walks around, typically showing a blank stare and unresponsiveness to communication?
Answer: Sleepwalking (Somnambulism)
Q.309: What is the term for a disruptive behavior disorder of childhood marked by a frequent and persistent pattern of angry, irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness?
Answer: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
Q.310: What is the term for a more severe disruptive behavior disorder in children and adolescents characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of violating basic rights of others or major norms?
Answer: Conduct disorder
Q.311: What term is used to describe the lack of remorse, empathy, and shallow affect often seen in individuals with conduct disorder who are at risk for adult antisocial personality?
Answer: With limited prosocial emotions (Callous-unemotional traits)
Q.312: What is the term for a neurodevelopmental communication disorder characterized by persistent difficulties in the acquisition and use of language across modalities due to deficits in comprehension or production?
Answer: Language disorder
Q.313: What is the term for a speech sound disorder characterized by persistent difficulty with speech sound production that interferes with speech intelligibility or prevents verbal communication?
Answer: Speech sound disorder (Articulation disorder)
Q.314: What is the term for a fluency disorder characterized by disturbances in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech, commonly known as stuttering?
Answer: Childhood-onset fluency disorder
Q.315: What is the term for a communication disorder characterized by persistent difficulties in the social use of verbal and nonverbal communication, affecting social interaction and relationships?
Answer: Social (pragmatic) communication disorder
Q.316: What is the term for a psychological phenomenon where a patient experiences total paralysis or blindness without any verifiable neurological damage or physiological cause?
Answer: Conversion disorder (Functional neurological symptom disorder)
Q.317: What is the term for a mental disorder in which a person falsifies physical or psychological signs or symptoms, or induces injury or disease in another, under false pretenses (e.g., Munchausen syndrome)?
Answer: Factitious disorder
Q.318: What is the term for the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms motivated by external incentives, such as avoiding work or financial gain?
Answer: Malingering
Q.319: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder involving intense and recurrent sexual arousal derived from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, undressing, or engaging in sexual activity?
Answer: Voyeurism
Q.320: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder characterized by intense sexual arousal from exposing one’s genitals to an unsuspecting stranger?
Answer: Exhibitionism
Q.321: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder involving sexual arousal derived from touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person, typically in crowded public places?
Answer: Frotteurism
Q.322: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder involving sexual pleasure derived from the suffering, humiliation, or pain of another person?
Answer: Sadism (Sexual sadism disorder)
Q.323: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder involving sexual arousal derived from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer?
Answer: Masochism (Sexual masochism disorder)
Q.324: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder where sexual attraction is focused on non-living objects or specific non-genital body parts?
Answer: Fetishistic disorder
Q.325: What is the term for a paraphilic disorder involving cross-dressing for the purpose of sexual arousal, typically experienced by heterosexual males?
Answer: Transvestic disorder
Q.326: What is the term for a severe form of postnatal depression that occurs in mothers shortly after childbirth, accompanied by extreme anxiety, detachment, or thoughts of harm?
Answer: Postpartum depression (Major depressive disorder with peripartum onset)
Q.327: What is the rare, extreme psychiatric emergency following childbirth characterized by severe confusion, hallucinations, delusions, and risk of harm to the infant?
Answer: Postpartum psychosis
Q.328: What is the term for a mild, transient depressive state experienced by many women within the first few days after childbirth due to hormonal shifts, characterized by crying and mood swings?
Answer: Postpartum blues (Baby blues)
Q.329: What is the term for a psychological defense mechanism where a person deals with emotional conflict or stressors by overemphasizing intellectual analysis of a situation to avoid feeling?
Answer: Intellectualization
Q.330: What is the term for a defense mechanism where a person acts out an unacceptable wish or fantasy through compulsive behavior to make up for or reverse the original wrong?
Answer: Undoing
Q.331: What is the term for a defense mechanism where an individual avoids uncomfortable emotions by turning them into their exact opposite behavioral stance?
Answer: Reaction formation
Q.332: What is the term for a defense mechanism where a person mentally separates an uncomfortable memory or emotion from their conscious awareness to protect the ego?
Answer: Dissociation (or Compartmentalization)
Q.333: What is the term for a psychological therapy developed by Aaron Beck that challenges cognitive distortions to alleviate emotional distress?
Answer: Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT)
Q.334: What is the term for a type of learning in behavior therapy where a client is exposed to their most feared situation at maximum intensity until fear subsides?
Answer: Flooding
Q.335: What is the term for a behavioral therapy technique that pairs an undesirable behavior with an unpleasant stimulus, such as nausea-inducing drugs for alcohol abuse?
Answer: Aversive conditioning
Q.336: What is the term for a humanistic therapy technique where therapists reflect back the client’s emotional statements with deep acceptance and warmth?
Answer: Active listening (or Reflective listening)
Q.337: What is the term for the psychoanalytic technique where a patient reports everything that comes to mind without censorship to uncover unconscious material?
Answer: Free association
Q.338: What is the term for the psychoanalytic phenomenon where a patient redirects feelings and desires from important figures in their past onto the therapist?
Answer: Transference
Q.339: What is the term for the phenomenon where a therapist unconsciously projects their own personal unresolved conflicts and feelings onto the patient?
Answer: Countertransference
Q.340: What is the term for a neurodevelopmental condition formerly considered an independent diagnosis on the autism spectrum, characterized by normal intelligence but severe social impairments?
Answer: Asperger’s syndrome
Q.341: What is the term for a condition characterized by sudden, involuntary muscular movements or vocalizations that occur repeatedly, distinct from Tourette’s syndrome?
Answer: Persistent motor or vocal tic disorder
Q.342: What is the term for a severe form of anxiety characterized by an intense fear of social or performance situations where scrutiny by others may occur?
Answer: Social anxiety disorder (Social phobia)
Q.343: What is the term for an intense, irrational fear of open spaces, leaving one’s home, or being in places where escape might be difficult during a panic attack?
Answer: Agoraphobia
Q.344: What is the term for the severe psychological distress that occurs when an individual experiences a mismatch between their assigned gender and their experienced gender?
Answer: Gender dysphoria
Q.345: What is the term for a neurocognitive disorder resulting from chronic, heavy alcohol consumption that leads to severe memory loss and confabulation due to thiamine deficiency?
Answer: Korsakoff’s syndrome
Q.346: What is the term for the psychological tendency where individuals invent fabricated or distorted memories to fill in gaps in their memory without conscious intention to deceive?
Answer: Confabulation
Q.347: What is the term for a chronic personality disorder characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression?
Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Q.348: What is the term for a personality disorder marked by a pervasive pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive distortions, and eccentric behaviors?
Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Q.349: What is the term for a personality disorder characterized by a pervasive, unwarranted distrust and suspiciousness of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent?
Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Q.350: What is the term for an acute, transient condition of confusion, disorientation, and altered consciousness often triggered by medical illness, toxins, or drug withdrawal?
Answer: Delirium
Clinical Psychology
Q.351: What is the specialized branch of psychology that focuses on the assessment, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mental disorders and psychological distress?
Answer: Clinical psychology
Q.352: Who established the first psychological clinic at the University of Pennsylvania in 1896, marking the formal birth of clinical psychology?
Answer: Lightner Witmer
Q.353: What is the term for the clinical interview technique that involves a standard set of questions administered in a specific order to ensure diagnostic reliability?
Answer: Structured clinical interview
Q.354: What is the term for the objective psychological test consisting of true/false statements designed to assess personality traits and psychopathology (e.g., MMPI-2)?
Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
Q.355: What is the term for the projective psychological test where individuals describe what they see in a series of ten symmetrical inkblots?
Answer: Rorschach inkblot test
Q.356: What is the term for the projective test consisting of a series of ambiguous pictures about which the examinee is asked to make up a story?
Answer: Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Q.357: What is the term for the standardized intelligence test widely used by clinical psychologists to assess cognitive functioning in adults (WAIS)?
Answer: Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
Q.358: What is the term for the clinical approach that integrates the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values?
Answer: Evidence-based practice (EBP)
Q.359: What is the term for the therapeutic alliance or working relationship established between a clinical psychologist and a client?
Answer: Therapeutic alliance
Q.360: What is the term for the brief, immediate psychological intervention provided to individuals following a major crisis, disaster, or trauma to prevent acute distress?
Answer: Psychological first aid (Crisis intervention)
Q.361: What is the term for the clinical process of systematically gathering information about a client’s symptoms, history, and functioning to arrive at a diagnosis?
Answer: Psychological assessment
Q.362: What is the term for the neuropsychological assessment battery designed to evaluate brain damage, executive functioning, and cognitive deficits (e.g., Halstead-Reitan)?
Answer: Neuropsychological assessment battery
Q.363: What is the term for the psychotherapeutic approach focused on changing maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors to reduce emotional distress?
Answer: Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT)
Q.364: What is the term for the third wave CBT approach that emphasizes mindfulness, acceptance, and commitment to personal values rather than direct symptom reduction?
Answer: Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)
Q.365: What is the term for the psychotherapeutic technique developed by Marsha Linehan designed primarily to treat borderline personality disorder through mindfulness and emotional regulation?
Answer: Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)
Q.366: What is the term for a short-term, psychodynamic therapy focused on resolving interpersonal problems and improving social functioning in depressed patients?
Answer: Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)
Q.367: What is the term for the therapeutic technique involving systematic desensitization combined with rapid eye movements used primarily for PTSD (EMDR)?
Answer: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing
Q.368: What is the term for the clinical error where a psychologist overgeneralizes or misinterprets a client’s behavior due to cultural differences or biases?
Answer: Cultural bias in clinical assessment
Q.369: What is the term for the ethical obligation of clinical psychologists to protect client privacy and disclose information only under specific legal or safety exceptions?
Answer: Confidentiality
Q.370: What is the legal and ethical ruling that requires mental health professionals to warn or protect intended victims if a client makes a credible threat of violence?
Answer: Tarasoff duty to warn (Duty to protect)
Q.371: What is the term for the clinical interview style that helps clients explore and resolve ambivalence about changing maladaptive behaviors?
Answer: Motivational interviewing
Q.372: What is the term for the prevention model in clinical psychology that aims to reduce the incidence of new cases of mental disorders by targeting entire populations?
Answer: Primary prevention
Q.373: What is the term for the prevention model focused on early detection and prompt treatment of existing mental health symptoms to shorten their duration?
Answer: Secondary prevention
Q.374: What is the term for the prevention model aimed at reducing the long-term impairment, disability, and relapse associated with chronic mental disorders?
Answer: Tertiary prevention
Q.375: What is the term for the clinical psychology training model that emphasizes an equal balance of academic research skills and clinical practice (Scientist-Practitioner model)?
Answer: Boulder model
Q.376: What is the clinical psychology training model that places primary emphasis on clinical practice and professional application rather than empirical research (Practitioner-Scholar model)?
Answer: Vail model
Q.377: What is the term for the clinical assessment method where clients monitor and record the frequency, duration, and context of their own target behaviors in real time?
Answer: Self-monitoring
Q.378: What is the term for the clinical error where a clinician relies too heavily on the first piece of information encountered when formulating a diagnosis?
Answer: Anchoring bias
Q.379: What is the term for the psychological phenomenon where clinicians perceive a relationship between two variables when none exists, based on prior expectations?
Answer: Illusory correlation
Q.380: What is the term for the comprehensive written evaluation prepared by a clinical psychologist summarizing test results, behavioral observations, and diagnostic impressions?
Answer: Psychological report
Q.381: What is the term for the therapeutic technique where a client is asked to vividly imagine a feared stimulus in a graded, hierarchical manner while practicing relaxation?
Answer: Systematic desensitization
Q.382: What is the term for the exposure-based therapy where a client confronts trauma memories directly and repeatedly in imagination or in vivo until distress decreases?
Answer: Prolonged exposure therapy
Q.383: What is the term for the clinical procedure used to measure electrical activity in the brain through electrodes placed on the scalp to assess neurological functioning?
Answer: Electroencephalography (EEG)
Q.384: What is the term for the neuroimaging technique that measures blood oxygenation levels in the brain to map active regions during cognitive or emotional tasks?
Answer: Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
Q.385: What is the term for the clinical psychology approach that views psychological problems within the context of family relationships and communication patterns?
Answer: Family systems therapy
Q.386: What is the term for the therapeutic technique where family members act out interpersonal conflicts using role reversal under the guidance of the therapist?
Answer: Psychodrama (or Enactment)
Q.387: What is the term for the unhelpful family dynamic where parents use a child to buffer their own marital conflict or emotional needs?
Answer: Triangulation
Q.388: What is the term for the psychological test specifically designed to assess cognitive ability and developmental status in infants and toddlers (Bayley Scales)?
Answer: Developmental quotient assessment
Q.389: What is the term for the clinical outcome measure used to evaluate whether a client has improved significantly over the course of psychotherapy?
Answer: Treatment outcome evaluation
Q.390: What is the term for the ethical principle in clinical psychology requiring professionals to maintain competence, integrity, and respect for client rights?
Answer: Professional ethics and code of conduct
Q.391: What is the term for the clinical interviewing skill where the psychologist restates the core content of what the client said in different words to verify understanding?
Answer: Paraphrasing
Q.392: What is the term for the therapeutic response where the clinician explicitly points out patterns or contradictions in the client’s behavior or statements?
Answer: Confrontation
Q.393: What is the term for the psychological phenomenon where a patient shows sudden, temporary improvement in symptoms just before termination of therapy due to fear of separation?
Answer: Flight into health
Q.394: What is the term for the clinical assessment technique that uses standardized rating scales completed by teachers, parents, or observers to rate child behaviors?
Answer: Behavioral rating scale (e.g., Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment)
Q.395: What is the term for the specialized subfield of clinical psychology focused on the assessment and treatment of cognitive and behavioral consequences of brain injury?
Answer: Clinical neuropsychology
Q.396: What is the term for the therapeutic approach that focuses on helping individuals find meaning, purpose, and personal responsibility in their lives (logotherapy)?
Answer: Existential therapy
Q.397: What is the term for the humanistic technique where therapists guide clients toward self-actualization by accepting them fully without any conditions or judgments?
Answer: Unconditional positive regard
Q.398: What is the term for the brief psychotherapeutic intervention model typically restricted to a fixed number of sessions (e.g., 12 to 20 sessions) focused on a specific problem?
Answer: Short-term dynamic psychotherapy
Q.399: What is the term for the clinical practice of combining multiple therapeutic techniques or theoretical orientations tailored to a specific client’s needs?
Answer: Eclectic psychotherapy (or Integrative psychotherapy)
Q.400: What is the term for the formal evaluation conducted by a clinical psychologist to determine a defendant’s competency to stand trial or legal criminal responsibility?
Answer: Forensic psychological evaluation
Child Psychopathology
Q.401: What is the specialized field of study that focuses on the description, causes, assessment, and treatment of psychological disorders in children and adolescents?
Answer: Child Psychopathology
Q.402: According to developmental psychopathology, what term describes the principle that different developmental pathways can lead to the same psychological disorder?
Answer: Equifinality
Q.403: According to developmental psychopathology, what term describes the principle that the same initial starting point or risk factor can lead to vastly different developmental outcomes?
Answer: Multifinality
Q.404: What is the term for internalizing disorders in children that are characterized by emotional distress directed inward, such as anxiety and depression?
Answer: Internalizing disorders
Q.405: What is the term for externalizing disorders in children that are characterized by behavioral problems directed outward, such as aggression and rule-breaking?
Answer: Externalizing disorders
Q.406: What is the term for the neurodevelopmental disorder marked by persistent patterns of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interfere with functioning?
Answer: Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Q.407: Which neurotransmitters are primarily implicated in the neurobiological etiology and medical treatment of ADHD?
Answer: Dopamine and Norepinephrine
Q.408: What is the term for the disruptive behavior disorder of childhood characterized by a frequent and persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness?
Answer: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
Q.409: What is the term for a more severe childhood disruptive disorder involving a repetitive and persistent pattern of violating the basic rights of others or major societal norms?
Answer: Conduct Disorder (CD)
Q.410: What is the term for the severe emotional and behavioral deficits characterized by a lack of remorse, empathy, and shallow affect, often associated with severe conduct problems?
Answer: Callous-unemotional (CU) traits
Q.411: What is the term for neurodevelopmental disorders characterized by severe and pervasive impairment in reciprocal social interaction, communication, and restricted, repetitive behaviors?
Answer: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
Q.412: What is the term for the early language development phenomenon where a child with autism repeats words or phrases spoken by others without communicative intent?
Answer: Echolalia
Q.413: What is the term for a specific learning disorder characterized by severe difficulties in accurate or fluent word recognition, decoding, and spelling?
Answer: Dyslexia
Q.414: What is the term for a communication disorder characterized by significant disturbances in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech (stuttering)?
Answer: Childhood-onset fluency disorder
Q.415: What is the term for a neurodevelopmental disorder defined by significant limitations both in intellectual functioning and in adaptive behavior originating before age 18?
Answer: Intellectual Developmental Disorder (Intellectual Disability)
Q.416: What is the term for the genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion on the X chromosome, representing the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability?
Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Q.417: What is the term for a genetic condition caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21, resulting in distinctive physical features and intellectual disability?
Answer: Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
Q.418: What is the term for a motor disorder characterized by multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic persisting for more than a year during childhood?
Answer: Tourette’s disorder
Q.419: What is the term for the elimination disorder involving repeated, involuntary or intentional voiding of urine into clothes or bed in children aged 5 or older?
Answer: Enuresis
Q.420: What is the term for the elimination disorder involving the repeated passing of feces into inappropriate places by a child who is at least 4 years old?
Answer: Encopresis
Q.421: What is the term for a feeding disorder of infancy or early childhood characterized by persistent eating of non-nutritive, non-food substances for at least one month?
Answer: Pica
Q.422: What is the term for a feeding disorder where an infant repeatedly regurgitates food, which may be rechewed, reswallowed, or spit out, over at least one month?
Answer: Rumination disorder
Q.423: What is the term for the selective refusal or failure of a child to speak in specific social situations (like school) despite speaking comfortably in other settings?
Answer: Selective mutism
Q.424: What is the term for the excessive, developmentally inappropriate anxiety concerning separation from home or attachment figures?
Answer: Separation Anxiety Disorder (SAD)
Q.425: What is the term for the persistent, irrational fear of social performance situations where evaluation by others may occur in children and adolescents?
Answer: Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia)
Q.426: What is the term for the clinical presentation of pediatric bipolar disorder marked by severe, recurrent temper outbursts out of proportion to the situation, accompanied by a chronically irritable mood?
Answer: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
Q.427: What is the term for an eating disorder emerging in adolescence characterized by a refusal to maintain minimally normal body weight, intense fear of gaining weight, and body image distortion?
Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Q.428: What is the term for an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting?
Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Q.429: What is the term for a trauma- and stressor-related disorder of infancy or early childhood characterized by a consistent pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers?
Answer: Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)
Q.430: What is the term for a trauma- and stressor-related disorder where a child actively approaches and interacts with unfamiliar adults without normal reticence or boundary caution?
Answer: Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder (DSED)
Q.431: What is the term for the psychological assessment instrument specifically designed to evaluate parent-child interaction dynamics and behavioral problems in young children (e.g., Eyberg Child Behavior Inventory)?
Answer: Behavioral parent-child rating scale
Q.432: What is the term for the evidence-based parent training program designed to treat disruptive behavior disorders in children by improving parenting skills and parent-child communication (PCIT)?
Answer: Parent-Child Interaction Therapy
Q.433: What is the term for the cognitive behavioral intervention program developed for children and adolescents to treat anxiety disorders through coping skill training (e.g., Coping Cat)?
Answer: Cognitive-behavioral anxiety management for youth
Q.434: What is the term for the clinical phenomenon where symptoms of child psychopathology change form or expression as the child grows older (e.g., infant sleep problems manifesting as adolescent depression)?
Answer: Developmental heterotypic continuity
Q.435: What is the term for the psychological concept that explains how early risk factors interact with protective factors to determine whether a child develops psychopathology?
Answer: Resilience and vulnerability framework
Q.436: What is the term for the neurodevelopmental sleep disorder characterized by frequent disruptions in breathing during sleep, often associated with enlarged tonsils or adenoids in children?
Answer: Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea
Q.437: What is the term for the repetitive, rhythmic, and nonfunctional motor behaviors (such as body rocking or head banging) that cause injury or significant impairment in children?
Answer: Stereotypic movement disorder
Q.438: What is the term for the psychological defense mechanism frequently observed in children who have experienced severe trauma, where they mentally separate themselves from the painful reality?
Answer: Dissociation
Q.439: What is the term for the clinical assessment technique that involves directly observing a child’s behavior within a naturalistic environment, such as a classroom or playground?
Answer: Naturalistic behavioral observation
Q.440: What is the term for the developmental phenomenon where childhood symptoms persist in the exact same form into adolescence and adulthood (e.g., homotypic continuity)?
Answer: Homotypic continuity
Q.441: What is the term for the specific subtype of ADHD where the individual displays significant symptoms of both inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity?
Answer: ADHD, Combined presentation
Q.442: What is the term for the specialized behavioral treatment approach that uses operant conditioning principles to decrease maladaptive behaviors and increase prosocial skills in children with autism?
Answer: Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA)
Q.443: What is the term for the psychological assessment tool used to measure child behavior problems across multiple informants, including parents, teachers, and self-reports (ASEBA)?
Answer: Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL)
Q.444: What is the term for the childhood disorder characterized by chronic, pervasive feelings of unhappiness, sadness, and loss of interest in play, mirroring adult major depression?
Answer: Childhood major depressive disorder
Q.445: What is the term for the family-based intervention designed to treat adolescent anorexia nervosa by mobilizing parents to take active control over the adolescent’s eating patterns (Maudsley approach)?
Answer: Family-based treatment (FBT)
Q.446: What is the term for the early-onset neurodevelopmental condition characterized by a severe loss of social, communication, and motor skills after a period of normal development (formerly a distinct diagnosis)?
Answer: Childhood disintegrative disorder
Q.447: What is the term for the genetic neurodevelopmental disorder caused by the deletion of genes on chromosome 15 (paternal copy), marked by severe hypotonia, feeding difficulties in infancy, and later insatiable appetite?
Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Q.448: What is the term for the genetic neurodevelopmental disorder resulting from a microdeletion on chromosome 7, characterized by distinctive facial features, a sociable “cocktail party” personality, and intellectual disability?
Answer: Williams syndrome
Q.449: What is the term for the environmental risk factor where a pregnant mother’s heavy consumption of alcohol results in distinct facial abnormalities, growth retardation, and cognitive deficits in the child?
Answer: Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)
Q.450: What is the term for the clinical concept that describes the buffering effect of positive environmental or internal traits (such as an affectionate caregiver or high intelligence) that protect a child from developing psychopathology despite high risk?
Answer: Protective factors
Psychological Assessment & Testing
Q.451: What is the systematic process of gathering, integrating, and evaluating information about an individual’s psychological functioning, traits, and behavior called?
Answer: Psychological assessment
Q.452: What is the term for the specific tools—such as questionnaires, performance tasks, and checklists—used by psychologists to gather measurable data during an assessment?
Answer: Psychological testing
Q.453: What is the term for the psychometric property that refers to the consistency, stability, and repeatability of test scores over repeated administrations?
Answer: Reliability
Q.454: What is the psychometric property that measures whether a psychological test actually evaluates what it claims to measure?
Answer: Validity
Q.455: What is the term for the standard procedure of administering, scoring, and interpreting a psychological test under uniform conditions for all test-takers?
Answer: Standardization
Q.456: Who is credited with developing the first practical intelligence test in 1905 to identify school children who needed special educational assistance?
Answer: Alfred Binet and Théodore Simon
Q.457: What is the formula originally used to calculate the Intelligence Quotient (IQ), dividing mental age by chronological age and multiplying by 100?
Answer: Ratio IQ ($IQ = (Mental Age / Chronological Age) \times 100$)
Q.458: What is the term for the modern method of scoring intelligence tests by comparing an individual’s score against a normative sample of the same age group, yielding a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15?
Answer: Deviation IQ
Q.459: What is the widely used individual intelligence test for adults, developed by David Wechsler, yielding Verbal and Performance IQ scores?
Answer: Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)
Q.460: What is the Wechsler intelligence scale specifically designed for children aged 6 to 16 years old?
Answer: Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)
Q.461: What is the term for objective personality tests that present structured statements or questions requiring fixed-alternative answers (true/false or rating scales)?
Answer: Objective personality tests
Q.462: What is the most widely used and researched objective personality inventory in clinical psychology used to assess psychopathology and personality traits?
Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)
Q.463: What is the term for personality tests that use ambiguous stimuli, allowing examinees to project their inner unconscious conflicts, motives, and needs?
Answer: Projective tests
Q.464: Who developed the famous projective test consisting of 10 inkblots (5 black-and-white and 5 colored) published in 1921?
Answer: Hermann Rorschach
Q.465: What is the projective test developed by Henry Murray and Christiana Morgan that consists of ambiguous cards depicting people in various scenes?
Answer: Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Q.466: What is the term for the neuropsychological assessment battery specifically designed to detect signs of brain damage and organic brain impairment in adults?
Answer: Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
Q.467: What is the brief neuropsychological screening tool that requires a patient to copy nine geometric designs, assessing visual-motor coordination and brain damage?
Answer: Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test (Bender-Gestalt)
Q.468: What is the clinical screening test for cognitive impairment and dementia that evaluates orientation, memory, and attention through a brief 30-point questionnaire?
Answer: Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
Q.469: What is the term for the response bias on self-report inventories where a test-taker tends to agree with statements regardless of their content (acquiescence)?
Answer: Acquiescence response set (yea-saying)
Q.470: What is the term for the assessment error or bias where a psychologist’s overall impression of a client influences how they rate specific individual traits or behaviors?
Answer: Halo effect
Q.471: What is the assessment term for the formal clinical evaluation conducted to determine an individual’s intellectual abilities, learning disabilities, or cognitive deficits?
Answer: Psychoeducational assessment
Q.472: What is the term for tests designed to measure an individual’s potential or capacity to learn a specific skill or acquire future proficiency (e.g., mechanical or clerical)?
Answer: Aptitude tests
Q.473: What is the term for tests that measure what an individual has already learned, acquired, or mastered in a specific subject area or training program?
Answer: Achievement tests
Q.474: What is the term for the testing format where test items automatically adapt in difficulty based on the examinee’s previous answers using computerized algorithms?
Answer: Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT)
Q.475: What is the term for the ethical guideline that prohibits psychologists from releasing raw psychological test data to unqualified individuals to protect test security and validity?
Answer: Protection of test security and data confidentiality
Q.476: What is the term for a psychometric property that assesses whether a test yields consistent scores across different raters or observers?
Answer: Inter-rater reliability
Q.477: What is the term for the reliability method that measures test consistency by splitting a single test into two halves and comparing the scores?
Answer: Split-half reliability
Q.478: What is the psychometric term for the degree to which test items adequately sample the full range of the domain being measured?
Answer: Content validity
Q.479: What is the term for validity evaluated by demonstrating that test scores correlate strongly with a concurrent criterion measure taken at the same time?
Answer: Concurrent validity
Q.480: What is the term for validity evaluated by showing that test scores successfully predict future performance or behavior on a relevant criterion?
Answer: Predictive validity
Q.481: What is the term for the validity established by demonstrating that a test correlates with other variables it should theoretically correlate with?
Answer: Convergent validity
Q.482: What is the term for the validity established by showing that a test does not correlate with variables it theoretically should be unrelated to?
Answer: Discriminant validity
Q.483: What is the term for the type of validity that examines whether a test measures the theoretical construct or psychological trait it claims to measure?
Answer: Construct validity
Q.484: What is the statistical technique used in test construction to identify clusters of test items that correlate highly with one another, revealing underlying traits?
Answer: Factor analysis
Q.485: What is the term for the statistical measure that estimates the range of fluctuation or error in an individual’s obtained test score compared to their true score?
Answer: Standard error of measurement (SEM)
Q.486: What is the term for the reference values established from a standardization sample that allow a psychologist to compare an individual’s test score to peers?
Answer: Norms (Normative data)
Q.487: What is the term for the type of norming that divides the standardization sample into specific age brackets to account for developmental changes in performance?
Answer: Age norms
Q.488: What is the term for test interpretation that compares an individual’s performance against a predetermined standard, cutoff score, or mastery criterion?
Answer: Criterion-referenced testing
Q.489: What is the term for test interpretation that compares an individual’s performance directly against the performance of a normative reference group?
Answer: Norm-referenced testing
Q.490: What is the widely used individual intelligence test specifically designed for preschool and primary-aged children (ages 2.5 to 7.75)?
Answer: Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)
Q.491: What is the individual intelligence scale developed by George Stanford and Lewis Terman based on the original Binet-Simon scale?
Answer: Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales
Q.492: What is the term for a non-verbal intelligence test designed to minimize cultural, language, and educational biases, consisting of visual pattern matrices?
Answer: Raven’s Progressive Matrices
Q.493: What is the brief, non-verbal screening test of receptive vocabulary that can be administered to individuals with speech or motor impairments?
Answer: Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT)
Q.494: What is the individual achievement test commonly used in psychoeducational evaluations to assess reading, mathematics, and written expression skills?
Answer: Wechsler Individual Achievement Test (WIAT) or Woodcock-Johnson Tests of Achievement
Q.495: What is the term for the objective personality inventory designed specifically for adolescents (ages 12 to 19) to assess psychopathology and personality patterns?
Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-Adolescent-RF (MMPI-A-RF)
Q.496: What is the multi-axial objective personality inventory developed by Theodore Millon that aligns closely with DSM personality disorders?
Answer: Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI-IV)
Q.497: What is the brief self-report inventory developed by Aaron Beck used extensively to measure the severity of depression symptoms?
Answer: Beck Depression Inventory (BDI-II)
Q.498: What is the self-report scale developed by Aaron Beck used to measure the severity of anxiety symptoms in clinical populations?
Answer: Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI)
Q.499: What is the rating scale completed by clinicians to measure the severity of depressive symptoms in patients already diagnosed with depression (Hamilton scale)?
Answer: Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HRSD)
Q.500: What is the clinician-rated scale used to measure the severity of schizophrenia symptoms, evaluating both positive and negative dimensions (PANSS)?
Answer: Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale
Q.501: What is the rating scale used by parents and teachers to assess ADHD symptoms and disruptive behaviors in children and adolescents (Conners scale)?
Answer: Conners Rating Scales
Q.502: What is the projective sentence-completion test that asks examinees to finish unfinished prompts, revealing unconscious attitudes and conflicts?
Answer: Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank (RISB)
Q.503: What is the human figure drawing test often used as a projective measure of cognitive development, body image, and emotional adjustment in children?
Answer: Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test (or Draw-A-Person Test)
Q.504: What is the neuropsychological test that measures cognitive flexibility, set-shifting, and executive control by asking patients to sort cards based on changing rules?
Answer: Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)
Q.505: What is the neuropsychological test that assesses processing speed, visual-motor coordination, and executive functioning through numbered and lettered circle connections?
Answer: Trail Making Test (Parts A and B)
Q.506: What is the neuropsychological memory test that involves learning and recalling a list of 16 words across multiple learning trials (CVLT)?
Answer: California Verbal Learning Test
Q.507: What is the clinical screening test for visuospatial constructional ability and executive function that requires drawing the face of a clock with numbers and hands?
Answer: Clock Drawing Test
Q.508: What is the term for the assessment error where a psychologist rates a client favorably across all traits simply because of one positive impression or interaction?
Answer: Horn effect (reverse halo effect)
Q.509: What is the term for the response bias where a test-taker consistently answers “no” or disagrees with items on a self-report questionnaire?
Answer: Nay-saying (acquiescence bias opposite)
Q.510: What is the term for the response style where an individual deliberately exaggerates psychological symptoms on a test to gain secondary benefits?
Answer: Malingering (or Fake-bad profile)
Q.511: What is the term for the response style where an individual consciously minimizes or denies psychological problems to present themselves in an overly positive light?
Answer: Social desirability response set (Fake-good profile) Validity scales
Q.512: What is the term for the ethical standard requiring psychologists to use current versions of tests rather than outdated or obsolete assessment instruments?
Answer: Use of outdated or obsolete tests restriction
Q.513: What is the term for the specialized assessment framework used in forensic contexts to evaluate whether a parent is capable of providing adequate care in custody disputes?
Answer: Child custody evaluation assessment
Q.514: What is the term for the formal psychological evaluation used to determine if a criminal defendant was legally insane at the time of committing an offense?
Answer: Evaluation of criminal responsibility (Sanity evaluation)
Q.515: What is the term for the psychological assessment battery used to evaluate risk factors for future violence or dangerousness in forensic settings?
Answer: Violence risk assessment
Q.516: What is the term for the statistical procedure used to determine if test items function differently across diverse cultural or demographic groups (bias detection)?
Answer: Differential Item Functioning (DIF)
Q.517: What is the term for the performance-based assessment method where children manipulate physical objects, blocks, or puzzles to evaluate perceptual-motor skills?
Answer: Performance-based subtests (e.g., Block Design)
Q.518: What is the term for the formal clinical process of gathering baseline data prior to beginning an intervention to measure subsequent treatment progress?
Answer: Baseline assessment
Q.519: What is the term for the continuous psychological evaluation conducted during the course of therapy to monitor client progress and treatment outcomes?
Answer: Progress monitoring assessment
Q.520: What is the term for the comprehensive battery approach in neuropsychology where a fixed set of standardized tests is administered to every patient regardless of specific referral questions?
Answer: Fixed battery approach (e.g., Halstead-Reitan)
Q.521: What is the term for the neuropsychological assessment approach where the clinician customizes the test battery dynamically based on the patient’s specific symptoms and history?
Answer: Flexible battery approach (Hypothesis-testing approach)
Q.522: What is the term for the subtest on intelligence scales that measures a person’s general knowledge of history, geography, and culture?
Answer: Information subtest
Q.523: What is the intelligence subtest that measures quantitative reasoning and mathematical word problem-solving abilities?
Answer: Arithmetic subtest
Q.524: What is the intelligence subtest that assesses practical social judgment, common sense, and comprehension of social rules?
Answer: Comprehension subtest
Q.525: What is the intelligence subtest that measures visual organization, spatial processing, and non-verbal problem-solving using colored blocks?
Answer: Block Design subtest
Q.526: What is the intelligence subtest that measures visual-motor dexterity and perceptual organization by asking examinees to copy geometric symbols?
Answer: Coding (or Digit Symbol) subtest
Q.527: What is the intelligence subtest that evaluates auditory attention and working memory by requiring examinees to repeat sequences of numbers forward and backward?
Answer: Digit Span subtest
Q.528: What is the intelligence subtest that measures visual perception, visual-motor coordination, and visual analysis by asking examinees to complete missing parts of pictures?
Answer: Picture Completion subtest
Q.529: What is the intelligence subtest that evaluates logical reasoning, sequencing, and temporal organization by arranging comic-strip style pictures in correct story order?
Answer: Picture Arrangement subtest
Q.530: What is the term for the scale index on modern Wechsler intelligence tests that measures the speed at which visual information is processed and coded?
Answer: Processing Speed Index (PSI)
Q.531: What is the term for the scale index on modern Wechsler intelligence tests that measures the ability to retain, manipulate, and transform verbal and visual information in short-term memory?
Answer: Working Memory Index (WMI)
Q.532: What is the term for the scale index on Wechsler scales that evaluates abstract, categorical, and verbal reasoning skills?
Answer: Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI)
Q.533: What is the term for the scale index on Wechsler scales that measures fluid reasoning, spatial processing, and visual-motor integration?
Answer: Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI) or Visual Spatial Index
Q.534: What is the term for the psychometric score that represents an individual’s overall cognitive performance derived by combining all core subtest scores?
Answer: Full Scale IQ (FSIQ)
Q.535: What is the clinical testing term for an examinee’s observed attitude, cooperation, anxiety level, and motivation during a testing session?
Answer: Behavioral observations during testing
Q.536: What is the term for the psychological assessment method that uses standardized rating scales filled out by multiple observers to assess a child’s adaptive behavior skills?
Answer: Adaptive behavior rating scale (e.g., Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales)
Q.537: What is the standardized assessment tool used to evaluate adaptive functioning across communication, daily living skills, and socialization domains?
Answer: Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales (VABS)
Q.538: What is the term for the assessment error where clinicians misinterpret uncommon cultural expressions or idioms of distress as symptoms of severe mental pathology?
Answer: Overpathologizing due to cultural misinterpretation
Q.539: What is the term for the ethical guideline that requires psychologists to maintain test materials securely to prevent public exposure of test items and answers?
Answer: Test security maintenance
Q.540: What is the term for the psychometric method that evaluates test items based on item difficulty and item discrimination using mathematical models?
Answer: Item Response Theory (IRT)
Q.541: What is the item statistic in psychometrics that indicates the proportion of examinees who answered a specific test item correctly?
Answer: Item difficulty index (p-value)
Q.542: What is the item statistic that measures how effectively a specific test item differentiates between high-performing and low-performing examinees?
Answer: Item discrimination index
Q.543: What is the term for the psychological assessment technique where a client tracks and records somatic symptoms, pain levels, or mood fluctuations on daily logs?
Answer: Daily symptom diary (Ecological Momentary Assessment)
Q.544: What is the term for the multi-method assessment approach recommended in clinical psychology that combines interviews, tests, observations, and historical records?
Answer: Assessment triangulation (Multi-method assessment)
Q.545: What is the term for the specialized psychological test used to measure vocational interests, career preferences, and matching job environments (e.g., Strong Interest Inventory)?
Answer: Vocational interest inventory
Q.546: What is the term for the objective personality assessment framework based on Carl Jung’s psychological types, classifying individuals into 16 personality profiles (MBTI)?
Answer: Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
Q.547: What is the term for the psychological test designed to measure leadership style, organizational climate, or interpersonal behavior styles in occupational psychology?
Answer: Organizational assessment battery
Q.548: What is the term for the formal evaluation used in schools to identify gifted and talented children who score significantly above average on intellectual measures?
Answer: Giftedness assessment
Q.549: What is the clinical term for the discrepancy analysis between an individual’s measured intellectual capacity (IQ) and their actual academic achievement score to diagnose specific learning disorders?
Answer: Ability-achievement discrepancy analysis
Q.550: What is the term for the systematic, multi-tiered evaluation approach in schools that assesses a student’s response to targeted educational interventions before determining a learning disability diagnosis?
Answer: Response to Intervention (RTI) assessment
Counseling & Psychotherapy
Q.551: What is the collaborative professional relationship between a trained mental health practitioner and a client designed to facilitate psychological growth and problem resolution?
Answer: Counseling and Psychotherapy
Q.552: Who is widely recognized as the founder of Person-Centred Therapy, emphasizing empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard?
Answer: Carl Rogers
Q.553: What is the term for the foundational counseling skill where the therapist accurately understands and reflects the client’s emotional experience from their perspective?
Answer: Empathy
Q.554: What is the term for the therapist’s ability to be authentic, transparent, and real within the therapeutic relationship?
Answer: Genuineness (or Congruence)
Q.555: What is the term for Carl Rogers’ core condition where the therapist accepts the client completely without judgment, evaluation, or conditions?
Answer: Unconditional positive regard
Q.556: Who developed Psychoanalysis, the foundational psychodynamic therapy focused on bringing unconscious conflicts into conscious awareness?
Answer: Sigmund Freud
Q.557: What is the psychodynamic technique where a patient relaxes and verbalizes every thought, feeling, and image that comes to mind without censorship?
Answer: Free association
Q.558: What is the psychodynamic term for the unconscious defense mechanisms or behaviors used by a client to block the progress of therapy or avoid painful material?
Answer: Resistance
Q.559: What is the psychodynamic process where a therapist helps the client understand the underlying meanings of their defenses, resistance, and unconscious conflicts?
Answer: Interpretation
Q.560: What is the term for the brief psychodynamic therapy developed by James Mann and Habib Davanloo that focuses on a single core focal conflict within a strict time limit?
Answer: Short-term dynamic psychotherapy (STDP)
Q.561: Who is the primary pioneer of Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT), which focuses on challenging irrational beliefs?
Answer: Albert Ellis
Q.562: What is the core framework of Albert Ellis’s REBT that posits activating events (A) do not cause emotional consequences (C) directly, but rather the beliefs (B) about the event do?
Answer: ABC model of personality and therapy
Q.563: Who developed Cognitive Therapy, focusing on identifying and restructuring automatic negative thoughts and cognitive distortions?
Answer: Aaron Beck
Q.564: What is the therapeutic approach developed by Donald Meichenbaum that teaches clients to modify their internal self-talk to cope with stress and anxiety?
Answer: Cognitive Behavior Modification (Stress Inoculation Training)
Q.565: What is the behavioral therapy technique based on classical conditioning where a client learns to replace anxiety with relaxation while confronting phobic stimuli?
Answer: Systematic desensitization
Q.566: Who developed Systematic Desensitization using the principle of reciprocal inhibition?
Answer: Joseph Wolpe
Q.567: What is the behavioral technique where a client is exposed to high-intensity feared stimuli for a prolonged period until anxiety naturally extinguishes?
Answer: Flooding
Q.568: What is the operant conditioning technique used in behavioral therapy where desirable behaviors are reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged for privileges or rewards?
Answer: Token economy
Q.569: What is the behavioral technique that uses immediate punishment or an aversive stimulus to eliminate highly undesirable, self-defeating behaviors?
Answer: Aversive conditioning
Q.570: What is the behavioral technique where a therapist demonstrates appropriate or desired behaviors for the client to observe and imitate?
Answer: Participant modeling (or Modeling)
Q.571: Who developed Gestalt Therapy, focusing on holism, present-moment awareness, and personal responsibility?
Answer: Fritz Perls
Q.572: What is the famous Gestalt therapy technique where a client imagines an absent person (or another part of themselves) sitting in an empty chair to resolve internal conflicts?
Answer: Empty chair technique
Q.573: What is the term for the Gestalt concept emphasizing the integration of all parts of the self, including disowned thoughts, feelings, and body sensations?
Answer: Wholeness and integration
Q.574: Who developed Logotherapy, an existential approach focused on helping clients find meaning and purpose in life?
Answer: Viktor Frankl
Q.575: What is the existential counseling technique developed by Viktor Frankl where a client is encouraged to intensely exaggerate their symptom or fear to break the cycle of anticipatory anxiety?
Answer: Paradoxical intention
Q.576: Who developed Transactional Analysis (TA), a psychotherapeutic model examining interactions through ego states (Parent, Adult, Child)?
Answer: Eric Berne
Q.577: What are the three primary ego states identified in Transactional Analysis?
Answer: Parent, Adult, and Child ego states
Q.578: Who is the founder of Reality Therapy, which emphasizes personal choice, responsibility, and fulfilling basic psychological needs?
Answer: William Glasser
Q.579: What is the core theoretical framework underlying Reality Therapy that posits human behavior is driven by internal needs for survival, love, power, freedom, and fun?
Answer: Choice Theory
Q.580: What is the form of counseling that focuses on brief, goal-oriented solutions rather than exploring the historical origins of a problem?
Answer: Solution-Focused Brief Therapy (SFBT)
Q.581: Who are the primary developers of Solution-Focused Brief Therapy?
Answer: Steve de Shazer and Insoo Kim Berg
Q.582: What is the famous questioning technique used in Solution-Focused Brief Therapy where clients imagine a future where their problem is miraculously solved overnight?
Answer: Miracle question
Q.583: What is the counseling approach developed by Michael White and David Epston that helps clients view themselves as separate from their problems by externalizing the issue?
Answer: Narrative therapy
Q.584: What is the term for the counseling model developed by Gerard Egan characterized by a three-stage helping framework (Current picture, Preferred scenario, Strategies)?
Answer: Skilled Helper model
Q.585: What is the term for the initial stage of counseling where the therapist builds trust, establishes rapport, and creates a safe psychological environment?
Answer: Rapport building and joining
Q.586: What is the counseling skill where the therapist restates the core emotional and cognitive content of the client’s statement in their own words?
Answer: Reflection of feeling and content
Q.587: What is the counseling skill where the therapist points out discrepancies, mixed messages, or gaps in the client’s narrative?
Answer: Confrontation
Q.588: What is the counseling skill used to pull together several themes, feelings, or ideas expressed by the client over the course of a session?
Answer: Summarization
Q.589: What is the specialized counseling format that involves two or more family members to address systemic relationship patterns and communication dynamics?
Answer: Family counseling (Family systems therapy)
Q.590: Who is considered a major pioneer of Family Systems Therapy, known for introducing concepts like differentiation of self and genograms?
Answer: Murray Bowen
Q.591: What is the family therapy approach developed by Salvador Minuchin that focuses on examining family boundaries, subsystems, and structural alignments?
Answer: Structural family therapy
Q.592: What is the family therapy model developed by Virginia Satir that emphasizes emotional honesty, clear communication styles, and human validation?
Answer: Experiential family therapy (Satir model)
Q.593: What is the strategic family therapy technique where a therapist prescribes the exact symptomatic behavior the client is complaining about to help them gain control over it?
Answer: Prescribing the symptom (Paradoxical prescription)
Q.594: What is the term for the structured counseling process designed to help individuals explore career options, match traits to job environments, and make vocational choices?
Answer: Career counseling
Q.595: Who proposed the classic Trait-Factor theory of vocational guidance, matching individual worker profiles with job requirements?
Answer: Frank Parsons
Q.596: What is the vocational personality typology developed by John Holland that categorizes individuals and work environments into six types (RIASEC)?
Answer: Holland’s Hexagonal Theory (Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, Conventional)
Q.597: What is the developmental career theory proposed by Donald Super that emphasizes self-concept development across various life stages?
Answer: Super’s Developmental Self-Concept Theory
Q.598: What is the specialized counseling subfield focused on helping individuals cope with chronic illness, physical disability, and psychological adjustment?
Answer: Rehabilitation counseling
Q.599: What is the counseling specialty focused on assisting students with academic development, personal-social growth, and career planning within educational institutions?
Answer: School counseling (Guidance counseling)
Q.600: What is the counseling intervention designed to help individuals recover from acute traumatic stress by processing the traumatic event in a safe environment?
Answer: Trauma-focused counseling
Q.601: What is the term for the psychological process in psychotherapy where a client gradually resolves their deep emotional issues and becomes ready to end counseling?
Answer: Termination phase of psychotherapy
Q.602: What is the ethical requirement in counseling that mandates practitioners to maintain professional boundaries and avoid dual or multiple relationships with clients?
Answer: Boundary maintenance and avoidance of dual relationships
Q.603: What is the term for the legal and professional obligation of counselors to protect client secrets and disclosures from unauthorized third parties?
Answer: Confidentiality
Q.604: What is the landmark legal case that established the mental health professional’s duty to protect or warn an intended victim if a client makes a credible threat?
Answer: Tarasoff v. Board of Regents of the University of California
Q.605: What is the term for the formal process where a practicing counselor receives regular guidance, case review, and ethical oversight from a more experienced senior clinician?
Answer: Clinical supervision
Q.606: What is the counseling technique where the therapist asks probing questions to help clients examine the logic and evidence behind their assumptions?
Answer: Socratic questioning
Q.607: What is the therapeutic approach that combines mindfulness practices with cognitive behavioral therapy to prevent the relapse of depression (MBCT)?
Answer: Mindfulness-Based Cognitive Therapy
Q.608: Who developed Mindfulness-Based Stress Reduction (MBSR), widely integrated into modern clinical counseling?
Answer: Jon Kabat-Zinn
Q.609: What is the third-wave behavioral therapy that uses acceptance, mindfulness, and commitment strategies to increase psychological flexibility (ACT)?
Answer: Acceptance and Commitment Therapy
Q.610: Who are the primary developers of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)?
Answer: Steven C. Hayes, Kelly Wilson, and Kirk Strosahl
Q.611: What is the intensive, structured psychotherapeutic treatment developed by Marsha Linehan specifically designed for individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder (DBT)?
Answer: Dialectical Behavior Therapy
Q.612: What is the core dialectic balance emphasized in Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)?
Answer: Acceptance and change
Q.613: What is the therapeutic technique in DBT that teaches clients how to tolerate emotional distress without engaging in impulsive or self-destructive behaviors?
Answer: Distress tolerance skill training
Q.614: What is the counseling approach that views the therapeutic relationship as an authentic meeting between two human beings exploring existential concerns of meaning, isolation, and mortality?
Answer: Existential counseling
Q.615: What is the term for the counseling framework that empowers marginalized or oppressed clients by examining social power dynamics and systemic inequalities?
Answer: Feminist therapy (and Multicultural counseling)
Q.616: What is the counseling competency model that requires practitioners to develop awareness of their own cultural biases, knowledge of diverse worldviews, and culturally appropriate intervention skills?
Answer: Multicultural counseling competencies
Q.617: What is the term for the counseling format where a single therapist leads a structured session with multiple clients facing similar psychological challenges?
Answer: Group therapy
Q.618: Who is considered a major pioneer and early developer of group psychotherapy methods?
Answer: Jacob L. Moreno (founder of Psychodrama)
Q.619: What are the primary curative factors in group psychotherapy identified by Irvin Yalom (e.g., universality, altruism, group cohesion)?
Answer: Yalom’s therapeutic factors in group therapy
Q.620: What is the therapeutic factor in group therapy where members realize they are not alone in their suffering and that others share similar struggles?
Answer: Universality
Q.621: What is the group therapy factor where members experience healing by helping, supporting, and contributing to the well-being of other group members?
Answer: Altruism
Q.622: What is the term for the developmental stages a counseling group typically goes through, originally formulated by Bruce Tuckman (Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning)?
Answer: Group developmental stages
Q.623: What is the term for the counseling technique where group members enact real-life scenarios or unresolved conflicts spontaneously in a staged setting?
Answer: Psychodrama
Q.624: What is the counseling technique where a client acts out a different perspective or role in a relationship scenario to build empathy and insight?
Answer: Role-playing
Q.625: What is the behavioral self-control technique where a client systematically monitors their own behavior and administers self-reinforcement or self-punishment?
Answer: Self-management therapy
Q.626: What is the counseling approach that helps clients explore ambivalence and resolve resistance to change using collaborative, non-confrontational dialogue?
Answer: Motivational interviewing
Q.627: Who are the primary developers of Motivational Interviewing?
Answer: William R. Miller and Stephen Rollnick
Q.628: What are the core spirit principles underlying Motivational Interviewing (Collaboration, Evocation, Autonomy)?
Answer: Spirit of Motivational Interviewing
Q.629: What is the counseling term for the reflective listening technique in Motivational Interviewing where the therapist highlights the discrepancy between a client’s current behavior and their core values?
Answer: Developing discrepancy
Q.630: What is the brief intervention framework used in medical and counseling settings for substance use disorders consisting of Feedback, Responsibility, Advice, Menu of options, Empathy, and Self-efficacy (FRAMES)?
Answer: FRAMES model of brief intervention
Q.631: What is the specialized counseling model used to help individuals recover from pathological grief and mourning following the loss of a loved one?
Answer: Grief counseling (Bereavement counseling)
Q.632: What is the counseling intervention model designed to provide immediate, short-term psychological support to individuals experiencing a severe life crisis or disaster?
Answer: Crisis intervention (Psychological first aid)
Q.633: What is the primary goal of psychological first aid in the immediate aftermath of a disaster?
Answer: To stabilize acute distress, provide basic needs, and connect individuals with support resources
Q.634: What is the counseling term for the emotional exhaustion, secondary traumatic stress, and burnout experienced by mental health professionals due to continuous exposure to client trauma?
Answer: Compassion fatigue (Secondary traumatic stress)
Q.635: What is the term for the professional self-care practice where a therapist regularly reflects on their own emotional state and clinical work with an independent colleague?
Answer: Peer consultation and reflective practice
Q.636: What is the therapeutic technique where a client is asked to write down their deepest thoughts and feelings surrounding a traumatic event over consecutive days to promote emotional healing?
Answer: Expressive writing therapy (Pennebaker paradigm)
Q.637: What is the expressive therapy modality that uses visual art creation and creative processes to help clients express unconscious emotions and resolve psychological distress?
Answer: Art therapy
Q.638: What is the expressive counseling modality that uses musical improvisation, listening, and songwriting to facilitate psychological healing and emotional expression?
Answer: Music therapy
Q.639: What is the therapeutic approach that integrates body awareness, movement, and dance to promote emotional, cognitive, and physical integration?
Answer: Dance movement therapy
Q.640: What is the counseling framework that combines animal-assisted interactions (such as therapy dogs or horses) with traditional psychotherapy to enhance emotional engagement and rapport?
Answer: Animal-assisted therapy
Q.641: What is the digital counseling modality that delivers mental health services remotely via video conferencing, phone calls, or secure messaging platforms?
Answer: Teletherapy (Telepsychology)
Q.642: What is the term for the structured counseling tool where individuals map out their family history across multiple generations to identify hereditary behavioral patterns, illnesses, and relationship dynamics?
Answer: Genogram
Q.643: What is the structured counseling technique where a client lists and rates distressing situations from least to most terrifying to construct a hierarchy for desensitization?
Answer: Anxiety hierarchy construction
Q.644: What is the behavioral intervention where a client is taught progressive muscle relaxation techniques to systematically tense and relax muscle groups to reduce bodily tension?
Answer: Progressive Muscle Relaxation (PMR)
Q.645: Who developed Progressive Muscle Relaxation?
Answer: Edmund Jacobson
Q.646: What is the counseling intervention that uses controlled, diaphragmatic breathing exercises to calm the autonomic nervous system during panic or high anxiety?
Answer: Controlled breathing (Respirator retraining)
Q.647: What is the term for the psychotherapeutic process where a therapist helps a client reframe negative life events from a more constructive, positive perspective?
Answer: Cognitive reframing (Cognitive restructuring)
Q.648: What is the term for the formal assessment conducted at the conclusion of psychotherapy to evaluate treatment effectiveness, goal attainment, and client satisfaction?
Answer: Outcome evaluation and termination assessment
Q.649: What is the term for the counseling framework that views human beings as active agents capable of self-determination, growth, and finding personal meaning in existence?
Answer: Humanistic-Existential counseling
Q.650: What is the overarching professional code that governs ethical behavior, client welfare, confidentiality, and professional competence for counselors and psychotherapists?
Answer: Professional code of ethics (e.g., APA or ACA Ethical Guidelines)
Q.651: What is the term for the counseling framework that focuses on helping clients explore and resolve feelings of guilt, isolation, and mortality through self-awareness?
Answer: Existential counseling
Q.652: Who is considered a major contemporary figure in existential psychotherapy, known for identifying the “four given realities of existence” (death, freedom, existential isolation, and meaninglessness)?
Answer: Irvin Yalom
Q.653: What is the therapeutic term for a client’s unconscious defense mechanism of attributing their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or motives to another person?
Answer: Projection
Q.654: What is the psychodynamic defense mechanism where an individual retreats to an earlier, more infantile stage of development in response to stress or anxiety?
Answer: Regression
Q.655: What is the psychodynamic defense mechanism characterized by refusing to accept or acknowledge the painful reality of an external event or internal state?
Answer: Denial
Q.656: What is the defense mechanism where an individual invents logical, socially acceptable justifications or excuses for behaviors driven by unconscious, unacceptable impulses?
Answer: Rationalization
Q.657: What is the counseling technique where a therapist intentionally discloses personal information or experiences to benefit the client, foster trust, or model vulnerability?
Answer: Therapist self-disclosure
Q.658: What is the term for the advanced counseling skill where a therapist responds to the underlying, unspoken emotional undertones of a client’s message?
Answer: Advanced empathy (or Inferring meaning)
Q.659: What is the therapeutic response where a counselor helps a client break down an overwhelming problem into smaller, manageable, sequential steps?
Answer: Problem-solving structuring (Step-by-step chunking)
Q.660: What is the term for the counseling intervention where the therapist and client collaboratively set specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound targets?
Answer: Goal setting in counseling (SMART goals)
Q.661: What is the term for the clinical phenomenon where a client prematurely terminates psychotherapy without the agreement or notification of the therapist?
Answer: Dropout from psychotherapy (Premature termination)
Q.662: What is the term for the therapeutic phenomenon where a client experiences a temporary worsening of symptoms or increased anxiety early in therapy as painful material is uncovered?
Answer: Initial symptom exacerbation (or Working-through turbulence)
Q.663: What is the psychodynamic term for the final stage of therapy where insight is repeatedly applied to daily life situations, consolidating gains and resolving neurotic patterns?
Answer: Working through
Q.664: What is the specialized counseling model designed to help couples improve communication, resolve conflicts, and restructure maladaptive interaction patterns?
Answer: Couples counseling (Marital therapy)
Q.665: Who developed Emotionally Focused Therapy (EFT) for couples, emphasizing attachment theory and the restructuring of emotional bonds?
Answer: Sue Johnson and Leslie Greenberg
Q.666: What is the behavioral couples therapy approach developed by Neil Jacobson and Andrew Christensen that focuses on accepting irreconcilable differences alongside promoting change?
Answer: Integrative Behavioral Couple Therapy (IBCT)
Q.667: What is the structured premarital counseling program designed to help couples assess relationship strengths, communication styles, and potential conflict areas (PREPARE/ENRICH)?
Answer: Premarital inventory counseling
Q.668: What is the specialized counseling approach used to support families through high-conflict divorce, custody evaluations, and co-parenting coordination?
Answer: Divorce and co-parenting counseling
Q.669: What is the specialized counseling format designed to help grieving family members process the death of a loved one and navigate family role realignments?
Answer: Family bereavement counseling
Q.670: What is the term for the consultation process where a counselor seeks professional guidance from a specialized expert regarding a complex or high-risk clinical case?
Answer: Clinical case consultation
Q.671: What is the ethical principle in counseling that mandates practitioners to act in the best interest of their clients and promote their well-being?
Answer: Beneficence
Q.672: What is the ethical principle requiring counselors to do no harm and actively avoid actions that could injure or exploit clients?
Answer: Nonmaleficence
Q.673: What is the ethical principle that respects a client’s right to self-determination, independence, and personal decision-making in counseling?
Answer: Autonomy
Q.674: What is the ethical principle requiring counselors to treat all clients fairly, equitably, and without discrimination or bias?
Answer: Justice
Q.675: What is the ethical principle mandating that counselors honor their professional commitments, maintain trust, and keep promises made to clients?
Answer: Fidelity
Q.676: What is the legal doctrine and ethical requirement ensuring that a client voluntarily consents to participate in counseling after being fully informed of risks, benefits, and policies?
Answer: Informed consent
Q.677: What is the term for the professional duty of a counselor to maintain accurate, up-to-date, and secure records of all counseling sessions and clinical interventions?
Answer: Clinical documentation and record-keeping
Q.678: What is the ethical dilemma that occurs when a counselor’s professional responsibilities to a client conflict with legal mandates, institutional policies, or third-party payers?
Answer: Ethical conflict of interest
Q.679: What is the specialized form of counseling that helps individuals recovering from drug or alcohol addiction develop relapse prevention strategies and coping skills?
Answer: Substance abuse counseling (Addiction counseling)
Q.680: What is the relapse prevention model developed by G. Alan Marlatt that teaches individuals to identify high-risk situations and manage cognitive lapses without full relapse?
Answer: Relapse prevention therapy
Q.681: What is the therapeutic approach developed by William Miller and Stephen Rollnick that uses motivational interviewing principles to treat substance use disorders (MET)?
Answer: Motivational Enhancement Therapy
Q.682: What is the brief behavioral intervention model used in medical settings to screen for alcohol problems and provide brief counseling (SBIRT)?
Answer: Screening, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment
Q.683: What is the specialized counseling subfield focused on addressing the mental health, adjustment, and vocational needs of military veterans and active-duty service members?
Answer: Military and veteran counseling
Q.684: What is the specialized counseling approach used to help survivors of sexual assault, domestic violence, or severe community trauma process their experiences?
Answer: Trauma-informed counseling
Q.685: What is the term for the counseling framework that addresses the unique psychological, social, and developmental challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals?
Answer: Affirmative counseling (LGBTQ+ affirmative therapy)
Q.686: What is the counseling model designed to assist elderly individuals and their families in coping with age-related transitions, cognitive decline, grief, and chronic illness?
Answer: Gerontological counseling (Geropsychology counseling)
Q.687: What is the specialized counseling approach used in corporate or organizational settings to provide short-term, confidential mental health and crisis support to employees (EAP)?
Answer: Employee Assistance Program counseling
Q.688: What is the term for the counseling technique where a therapist physically or mentally guides a client to role-play a challenging future conversation (behavioral rehearsal)?
Answer: Behavioral rehearsal
Q.689: What is the counseling intervention where a client writes down distorted automatic thoughts in a structured multi-column log to analyze evidence for and against them?
Answer: Thought record (Dysfunctional thought record)
Q.690: What is the therapeutic technique where a client is asked to step back and observe their thoughts as passing mental events rather than absolute facts (defusion)?
Answer: Cognitive defusion
Q.691: What is the term for the counseling concept where a therapist helps a client identify and build upon their internal strengths, resiliencies, and past successes?
Answer: Strengths-based counseling
Q.692: What is the counseling approach that integrates spiritual and religious values into the therapeutic process when requested by clients?
Answer: Spiritually integrated psychotherapy
Q.693: What is the term for the psychotherapeutic process where a therapist helps a client restructure their narrative identity from one of victimhood to one of agency and resilience?
Answer: Narrative re-authoring
Q.694: What is the specialized counseling technique used to treat phobias through gradual, real-world exposure to feared situations outside the therapy office?
Answer: In vivo exposure therapy
Q.695: What is the term for the collaborative evaluation where a therapist and client review homework assignments, practice exercises, and between-session insights?
Answer: Session review and homework debriefing
Q.696: What is the term for the clinical skill where a counselor summarizes the emotional core and actionable plan at the conclusion of a counseling session?
Answer: Session closing summary
Q.697: What is the term for the formal psychological evaluation conducted by a counselor to assess suicide risk, lethality, and crisis intervention needs?
Answer: Suicide risk assessment and crisis management
Q.698: What is the clinical protocol used by counselors when a client expresses acute suicidal ideation to ensure safety, contract for safety, and involve emergency support?
Answer: Crisis safety planning protocol
Q.699: What is the term for the counseling competency that evaluates a therapist’s ongoing awareness of personal limitations, biases, and need for continued professional development?
Answer: Professional self-assessment and competency evaluation
Q.700: What is the overarching goal of counseling and psychotherapy aimed at fostering a client’s self-understanding, emotional resilience, psychological autonomy, and adaptive functioning?
Answer: Psychological healing and personal growth
Learning & Behavioral Psychology
Q.701: What is the formal definition of learning in psychology as a relatively permanent change in behavior or behavioral potential resulting from experience?
Answer: Learning
Q.702: Who discovered classical conditioning while studying digestive reflexes in dogs, marking a foundational milestone in behavioral psychology?
Answer: Ivan Pavlov
Q.703: What is the term for the unlearned, natural response elicited by an unconditioned stimulus in classical conditioning (e.g., salivation to food)?
Answer: Unconditioned response (UCR)
Q.704: What is the term for the stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a reflexive response without prior learning?
Answer: Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
Q.705: What is the term for an originally neutral stimulus that, through repeated pairing with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to elicit a conditioned response?
Answer: Conditioned stimulus (CS)
Q.706: What is the term for the learned response to a previously neutral conditioned stimulus after association with an unconditioned stimulus?
Answer: Conditioned response (CR)
Q.707: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon where a conditioned response gradually weakens and disappears when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus?
Answer: Extinction
Q.708: What is the term for the reappearance of an extinguished conditioned response after a brief time period has passed without further conditioning trials?
Answer: Spontaneous recovery
Q.709: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon where an organism responds to stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus?
Answer: Stimulus generalization
Q.710: What is the ability of an organism to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and other dissimilar stimuli, responding only to the true target?
Answer: Stimulus discrimination
Q.711: Who formulated the Law of Effect, stating that behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are strengthened while those followed by annoying consequences are weakened?
Answer: Edward Thorndike
Q.712: What is the type of learning defined by B.F. Skinner where voluntary behaviors are controlled by their immediate environmental consequences?
Answer: Operant conditioning (Instrumental conditioning)
Q.713: What is the operant conditioning term for any consequence that strengthens or increases the frequency of the preceding behavior?
Answer: Reinforcement
Q.714: What is the operant conditioning process of strengthening a behavior by adding a desirable or pleasant stimulus immediately following the action?
Answer: Positive reinforcement
Q.715: What is the operant conditioning process of strengthening a behavior by removing or escaping from an unpleasant or aversive stimulus?
Answer: Negative reinforcement
Q.716: What is the operant conditioning term for any consequence that decreases or suppresses the frequency of the preceding behavior?
Answer: Punishment
Q.717: What is the operant conditioning process of weakening a behavior by presenting an aversive or unpleasant stimulus following the action?
Answer: Positive punishment (Punishment by application)
Q.718: What is the operant conditioning process of weakening a behavior by removing a pleasant stimulus following the action?
Answer: Negative punishment (Punishment by removal / Response cost)
Q.719: What is the operant conditioning procedure where complex behaviors are taught by reinforcing successive approximations toward the final target behavior?
Answer: Shaping (Method of successive approximations)
Q.720: What is the operant conditioning schedule where reinforcement is delivered after every single correct occurrence of the target behavior?
Answer: Continuous reinforcement schedule
Q.721: What is the reinforcement schedule where responses are reinforced only some of the time, resulting in greater resistance to extinction?
Answer: Intermittent reinforcement schedule (Partial reinforcement)
Q.722: What is the partial reinforcement schedule where a reward is given after a fixed, unchanging number of correct responses have been performed?
Answer: Fixed-ratio schedule
Q.723: What is the partial reinforcement schedule where a reward is given after an unpredictable, varying number of correct responses?
Answer: Variable-ratio schedule
Q.724: What is the partial reinforcement schedule where the first correct response after a constant, set amount of time passes is rewarded?
Answer: Fixed-interval schedule
Q.725: What is the partial reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is delivered for the first correct response after an unpredictable, changing time interval?
Answer: Variable-interval schedule
Q.726: Who proposed Social Learning Theory, emphasizing observational learning, modeling, and cognitive processes in behavior?
Answer: Albert Bandura
Q.727: What is the famous experiment conducted by Albert Bandura in 1961 that demonstrated children learn aggressive behaviors by observing adult models?
Answer: Bobo doll experiment
Q.728: What are the four essential cognitive stages required for observational learning according to Albert Bandura’s modeling theory?
Answer: Attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation (reinforcement)
Q.729: What is the term for learning that occurs without any immediate reinforcement or overt behavioral demonstration, famously studied by Edward Tolman with rats in mazes?
Answer: Latent learning
Q.730: What is the internal cognitive representation of spatial layouts and physical environments developed through exploration, as demonstrated by Edward Tolman?
Answer: Cognitive map
Q.731: What is the sudden psychological realization or flash of understanding regarding the solution to a problem without trial-and-error, studied by Wolfgang Köhler with chimpanzees?
Answer: Insight learning
Q.732: What is the behavioral phenomenon studied by Martin Seligman where animals or humans exposed to inescapable aversive shocks later fail to take action to escape when escape becomes possible?
Answer: Learned helplessness
Q.733: What is the form of learning where exposure to a harmless stimulus results in a gradual decrease in behavioral response over time?
Answer: Habituation
Q.734: What is the behavioral process where a organism’s reaction to a stimulus intensifies following repeated exposure to a strong or noxious stimulus?
Answer: Sensitization
Q.735: What is the specialized behavioral learning process where animals instinctively drift back toward innate, species-specific behaviors despite operant conditioning training (Breland and Breland)?
Answer: Instinctive drift
Q.736: What is the biological preparedness concept proposed by Martin Seligman suggesting that humans and animals are genetically wired to quickly develop phobias to evolutionary threats like snakes or heights?
Answer: Preparedness theory (Biological preparedness)
Q.737: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon discovered by John Garcia where organisms associate the taste of food with sickness after a single trial, even hours later?
Answer: Taste aversion (Garcia effect)
Q.738: What is the operant conditioning technique where tokens earned for positive behaviors can be exchanged later for tangible rewards, privileges, or prizes?
Answer: Token economy
Q.739: What is the behavioral modification technique where a target behavior is systematically ignored (withholding reinforcement) to extinguish the habit?
Answer: Extinction burst (and planned ignoring)
Q.740: What is the behavioral technique that combines deep muscle relaxation with an anxiety hierarchy to systematically eliminate phobias?
Answer: Systematic desensitization
Q.741: What is the term for the behavioral therapy method where a client is exposed to their most feared object or situation at full intensity until fear completely fades?
Answer: Flooding
Q.742: What is the behavioral technique that pairs an unwanted, self-defeating behavior with an unpleasant, nauseating stimulus to eliminate the habit?
Answer: Aversive conditioning
Q.743: What is the behavioral technique where a therapist demonstrates appropriate social skills or coping actions for a client to observe and practice?
Answer: Participant modeling (Behavioral rehearsal)
Q.744: What is the term for the neurobiological structure in the brain discovered by Olds and Milner that acts as the primary reward and reinforcement pathway involving dopamine?
Answer: Mesolimbic dopamine pathway (Reward center)
Q.745: What is the neurotransmitter most heavily implicated in reward prediction errors, reinforcement learning, and reinforcement pathways in the brain?
Answer: Dopamine
Q.746: What is the term for the learning process where an organism learns to perform a behavior to prevent or avoid an unpleasant event before it even starts?
Answer: Avoidance learning
Q.747: What is the term for the learning process where an organism learns to terminate an ongoing aversive stimulus through action?
Answer: Escape learning
Q.748: What is the behavioral principle stating that a high-frequency, preferred activity can be used to reinforce a low-frequency, less preferred activity (Premack Principle)?
Answer: Premack principle
Q.749: What is the operant conditioning procedure where reinforcement is delivered only when the organism emits a behavior that differs in topography or form from previous responses?
Answer: Differential reinforcement of variability
Q.750: What is the term for the behavioral phenomenon where response rates change abruptly when reinforcement schedules shift from rich to lean (behavioral contrast)?
Answer: Behavioral contrast effect
Q.751: What is the specialized learning concept where animals learn the relationship between two or more stimuli without explicit reinforcement, studied extensively in classical conditioning?
Answer: Associative learning
Q.752: What is the conditioning model developed by Robert Rescorla and Allan Wagner that mathematically predicts the development of conditioned strength based on cue surprise value?
Answer: Rescorla-Wagner model
Q.753: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon where a previously established conditioned stimulus blocks the conditioning of a new, accompanying neutral stimulus?
Answer: Blocking effect
Q.754: What is the learning phenomenon where an organism learns by watching the consequences experienced by another person, rather than undergoing direct trial and error?
Answer: Vicarious reinforcement (Observational learning)
Q.755: What is the term for the self-regulatory cognitive mechanism in social learning theory where individuals evaluate their own behavior against internal standards?
Answer: Self-efficacy and self-regulation
Q.756: Who introduced the concept of purposive behaviorism and cognitive maps, bridging the gap between behaviorism and cognitive psychology?
Answer: Edward C. Tolman
Q.757: Who was the radical behaviorist who invented the operant conditioning chamber (Skinner box) and advocated for the strict analysis of observable environmental stimuli and responses?
Answer: B.F. Skinner
Q.758: Who conducted the famous “Little Albert” experiment, demonstrating that emotional reactions like fear can be classically conditioned in human infants?
Answer: John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner
Q.759: What is the school of psychology founded by John B. Watson that restricts psychological study strictly to objective, observable behaviors rather than internal mental states?
Answer: Classical behaviorism
Q.760: What is the expanded behaviorist framework developed by Clark Hull, Kenneth Spence, and Edward Tolman that incorporates internal intervening variables like drive and motivation?
Answer: Neo-behaviorism (Purposive and drive-reduction behaviorism)
Q.761: What is the motivational drive-reduction theory proposed by Clark Hull suggesting that biological needs create internal states of tension that organisms seek to reduce?
Answer: Drive-reduction theory
Q.762: What is the distinction between what an organism has learned versus what they actually perform in an observable manner (Learning-Performance distinction)?
Answer: Learning-performance distinction
Q.763: What is the behavioral assessment method that analyzes behavior using the “ABC” framework (Antecedent, Behavior, Consequence)?
Answer: Functional behavioral assessment (FBA)
Q.764: What is the behavioral intervention strategy that involves removing all sources of positive reinforcement following an undesirable behavior to decrease its frequency?
Answer: Time-out from positive reinforcement
Q.765: What is the operant procedure where a specific amount of earned reinforcers or privileges is subtracted following an undesirable behavior (Response cost)?
Answer: Response cost
Q.766: What is the behavioral technique where incompatible behaviors are reinforced simultaneously to eliminate an unwanted habit (e.g., reinforcing relaxation to eliminate anxiety)?
Answer: Counterconditioning
Q.767: What is the learning schedule phenomenon where behaviors maintained under partial reinforcement schedules take significantly longer to extinguish than continuous ones?
Answer: Partial reinforcement extinction effect (PREE)
Q.768: What is the term for the behavioral training method where a complex task is broken down into small sequential steps, teaching the final step first (backward chaining)?
Answer: Backward chaining
Q.769: What is the behavioral method where a complex skill is taught by reinforcing each sequential step starting from the first task component (forward chaining)?
Answer: Forward chaining
Q.770: What is the specialized behavioral technique used in special education and autism intervention to break down skills into discrete, structured instructional trials (Discrete Trial Training)?
Answer: Discrete Trial Training (DTT)
Q.771: What is the term for the learning process where an organism responds to a novel stimulus in a way similar to a conditioned stimulus due to shared physical traits?
Answer: Stimulus generalization
Q.772: What is the behavioral term for the decrease in response strength when a conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without reinforcement (experimental extinction)?
Answer: Experimental extinction
Q.773: What is the phenomenon where two distinct conditioned stimuli presented together elicit a weaker combined response than expected due to overshadowing?
Answer: Overshadowing effect
Q.774: What is the behavioral term for the process of restoring an extinguished conditioned response by reintroducing pairings of the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli?
Answer: Reconditioning
Q.775: What is the operant term for a stimulus that signals whether a particular response will lead to reinforcement or punishment (Discriminative stimulus)?
Answer: Discriminative stimulus (SD)
Q.776: What is the term for the internal state of physiological arousal that energizes behavior to satisfy a primary biological need (Drive)?
Answer: Primary drive
Q.777: What is the term for a learned or acquired drive, such as the need for money or social approval, developed through association with primary drives?
Answer: Secondary drive (Acquired drive)
Q.778: What is the psychological law proposed by Yerkes and Dodson stating that performance on tasks is best at an intermediate level of arousal, dropping off when arousal is too low or too high?
Answer: Yerkes-Dodson law
Q.779: What is the theory of motivation proposing that human actions are driven by the desire to maintain optimal internal physiological balance or stability (Homeostasis)?
Answer: Homeostatic theory of motivation
Q.780: What is the cognitive-behavioral theory developed by Julian Rotter that explains behavior using expectancies and reinforcement value?
Answer: Social Learning Theory of Personality (Expectancy-value model)
Q.781: What is the term coined by Julian Rotter for an individual’s belief about whether outcomes are controlled by their own actions (internal) or external forces (external)?
Answer: Locus of control
Q.782: What is the psychological concept developed by Martin Seligman that describes an individual’s explanatory style when confronting bad events (Optimistic vs. Pessimistic)?
Answer: Explanatory style
Q.783: What is the learning framework that suggests organisms are biologically programmed to learn certain associations easily while finding others extremely difficult to acquire?
Answer: Seligman’s continuum of preparedness
Q.784: What is the behavioral assessment technique where observers record every occurrence of a target behavior within specific time intervals (Time sampling)?
Answer: Time-sampling behavioral observation
Q.785: What is the behavioral observation method that measures the exact length of time a behavior lasts from start to finish (Duration recording)?
Answer: Duration recording
Q.786: What is the behavioral observation method that counts the exact number of times a behavior occurs within a specified observation period (Frequency recording)?
Answer: Frequency recording (Event recording)
Q.787: What is the behavioral observation method that measures the amount of time that elapses between a stimulus presentation and the initiation of a behavioral response (Latency)?
Answer: Latency recording
Q.788: What is the term for the reliability metric used in behavioral observation to calculate the percentage of agreement between two independent observers?
Answer: Inter-observer agreement (IOA)
Q.789: What is the operant procedure where reinforcement is withheld for all behaviors except the specific target behavior designed to replace an undesirable one (DRO)?
Answer: Differential reinforcement of other behaviors (DRO)
Q.790: What is the operant procedure that reinforces a behavior that is physically incompatible with the problem behavior (DRI)?
Answer: Differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)
Q.791: What is the operant procedure that reinforces lower rates or frequencies of a behavior rather than its complete elimination (DRL)?
Answer: Differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior (DRL)
Q.792: What is the operant procedure that reinforces higher rates or frequencies of a desirable behavior to increase its occurrence (DRH)?
Answer: Differential reinforcement of high rates of behavior (DRH)
Q.793: What is the behavioral technique where an individual contracts with a therapist or teacher detailing specific behavioral goals and associated rewards or penalties?
Answer: Behavioral contract (Contingency contracting)
Q.794: What is the operant environment where individuals earn backup reinforcers by displaying adaptive behaviors, widely used in psychiatric wards and classrooms?
Answer: Token economy system
Q.795: What is the behavioral self-control strategy where individuals systematically monitor and record their own target behaviors to modify habits?
Answer: Self-monitoring
Q.796: What is the learning theory concept that highlights how cultural tools, language, and social interaction shape cognitive development and behavioral learning (Lev Vygotsky)?
Answer: Sociocultural theory of learning
Q.797: What is the Vygotskian concept representing the distance between a child’s independent problem-solving ability and their potential capacity with guidance?
Answer: Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
Q.798: What is the instructional method inspired by Vygotsky where a teacher adjusts the level of support to fit a student’s current skill level, gradually withdrawing assistance?
Answer: Instructional scaffolding
Q.799: What is the educational psychology term for learning that occurs when students construct their own understanding of concepts through active exploration and experience (Constructivism)?
Answer: Constructivist learning theory
Q.800: What is the comprehensive branch of psychology that integrates the principles of classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and cognitive learning to modify human behavior and solve practical problems?
Answer: Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) and Behavioral Psychology
Social & Educational Psychology
Q.801: What is the specialized branch of psychology that studies how people’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are influenced by the actual, imagined, or implied presence of others?
Answer: Social psychology
Q.802: What is the term for the scientific study of how educational settings influence learning and how human beings learn within educational environments?
Answer: Educational psychology
Q.803: What is the tendency for individuals to perform better on simple or well-learned tasks when other people are present (Norman Triplett)?
Answer: Social facilitation
Q.804: What is the tendency for people to exert less effort when working collectively toward a common goal than when working individually (Ringelmann effect)?
Answer: Social loafing
Q.805: What is the psychological phenomenon where individuals lose their sense of personal identity, accountability, and self-restraint when in a large, anonymous crowd?
Answer: Deindividuation
Q.806: What is the group process phenomenon where the initial tendencies of group members become intensified and exaggerated following group discussion and debate?
Answer: Group polarization
Q.807: What is the mode of thinking that occurs when deep group cohesion values consensus so strongly that realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action is overridden (Irving Janis)?
Answer: Groupthink
Q.808: What is the psychological tendency to give more weight to internal dispositional traits than to external situational factors when explaining other people’s behavior?
Answer: Fundamental attribution error
Q.809: What is the self-serving bias where individuals attribute their own successes to internal, stable factors while blaming their failures on external, situational causes?
Answer: Self-serving bias
Q.810: What is the tendency for people to believe that the world is inherently fair and that people get what they deserve (often leading to victim-blaming)?
Answer: Just-world hypothesis
Q.811: What is the social psychology term for a favorable or unfavorable evaluative reaction toward a person, object, idea, or social group?
Answer: Attitude
Q.812: What is the uncomfortable psychological tension that arises when an individual simultaneously holds two contradictory beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors (Leon Festinger)?
Answer: Cognitive dissonance
Q.813: What is the route to persuasion described by the elaboration likelihood model that involves deep, thoughtful consideration of message arguments and logical content?
Answer: Central route to persuasion
Q.814: What is the persuasion route where individuals are influenced by superficial cues, such as the speaker’s attractiveness, speaker status, or catchy presentation?
Answer: Peripheral route to persuasion
Q.815: What is the social influence phenomenon where individuals adjust their behavior or thinking to align with group standards or peer pressure (Solomon Asch’s line experiment)?
Answer: Conformity
Q.816: What is the form of social influence where an individual changes their behavior in direct response to a direct command or order from an authority figure (Stanley Milgram)?
Answer: Obedience
Q.817: What is the classic social experiment conducted by Stanley Milgram that measured the willingness of participants to administer lethal electric shocks to an innocent person under orders?
Answer: Milgram obedience experiment
Q.818: What is the prison simulation study conducted by Philip Zimbardo that demonstrated how social roles and situational pressures can cause extreme compliance and cruelty?
Answer: Stanford prison experiment
Q.819: What is the social psychology term for an unjustified, typically negative attitude toward a social group and its individual members?
Answer: Prejudice
Q.820: What is the social psychology term for generalized beliefs, expectations, or cognitive categorizations about the personal traits of members of a specific group?
Answer: Stereotype
Q.821: What is the behavioral manifestation of prejudice involving unfair, negative actions directed against members of a targeted social group?
Answer: Discrimination
Q.822: What is the psychological hypothesis suggesting that frustration creates an aggressive drive, which leads to prejudice and hostility directed against outgroups?
Answer: Frustration-aggression hypothesis
Q.823: What is the social psychological theory stating that prejudice and intergroup hostility arise from competition over scarce resources (Realistic conflict theory)?
Answer: Realistic conflict theory
Q.824: What is the social identity theory concept where individuals favor members of their own group (ingroup) over members of other groups (outgroup)?
Answer: Ingroup favoritism
Q.825: What is the educational strategy developed by Elliot Aronson where students are divided into interdependent small groups to master material and reduce racial prejudice?
Answer: Jigsaw classroom technique
Q.826: What are the four key components of interpersonal attraction that dictate friendship and romantic relationships?
Answer: Proximity, familiarity, physical attractiveness, and similarity
Q.827: What is the psychological phenomenon where repeated exposure to a novel stimulus increases an individual’s liking for it (Robert Zajonc)?
Answer: Mere exposure effect
Q.828: What is the triangular theory of love proposed by Robert Sternberg that comprises three core components?
Answer: Intimacy, passion, and commitment
Q.829: What is the form of unselfish regard for and devotion to the welfare of others, often performed without expectation of personal reward?
Answer: Altruism
Q.830: What is the phenomenon where individuals are less likely to offer help to a victim in an emergency when other people are present due to a diffusion of responsibility?
Answer: Bystander effect (Kitty Genovese case)
Q.831: What is the educational psychology term for a student’s belief in their own capability to execute behaviors necessary to perform specific academic tasks (Albert Bandura)?
Answer: Academic self-efficacy
Q.832: What is the type of academic motivation driven by internal rewards, personal curiosity, enjoyment, and a desire to learn for its own sake?
Answer: Intrinsic motivation
Q.833: What is the type of motivation driven by external rewards, grades, money, praise, or the avoidance of punishment?
Answer: Extrinsic motivation
Q.834: What is the educational theory developed by Jean Piaget proposing that children actively construct knowledge by interacting with their physical and social environment?
Answer: Cognitive constructivism
Q.835: What is the educational theory rooted in Lev Vygotsky’s work emphasizing that learning is inherently social and built through cultural mediation and collaborative dialogue?
Answer: Social constructivism
Q.836: What is the educational psychology concept that refers to the optimal range of difficulty where a student can master a new task with guidance or peer support (ZPD)?
Answer: Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
Q.837: What is the instructional process where temporary learning supports, prompts, and hints are gradually withdrawn as student mastery increases?
Answer: Scaffolding
Q.838: What is the instructional model developed by Benjamin Bloom that categorizes cognitive learning objectives into a hierarchical taxonomy from lower-order thinking to higher-order analysis?
Answer: Bloom’s taxonomy
Q.839: What are the lower-order and higher-order cognitive levels in Bloom’s revised taxonomy?
Answer: Remembering, understanding, applying, analyzing, evaluating, and creating
Q.840: What is the educational assessment type designed to evaluate student learning progress at the end of an instructional unit or term to assign grades?
Answer: Summative assessment
Q.841: What is the educational assessment conducted continuously throughout the teaching process to monitor student understanding and provide ongoing feedback?
Answer: Formative assessment
Q.842: What is the educational testing approach that compares a student’s score against a fixed performance standard or learning criterion rather than against peer scores?
Answer: Criterion-referenced testing
Q.843: What is the educational testing method that compares a student’s test score directly against the performance of a normative reference group?
Answer: Norm-referenced testing
Q.844: What is the psychological phenomenon where teachers’ high expectations lead to improved student academic performance (Pygmalion effect / Rosenthal effect)?
Answer: Pygmalion effect (Teacher expectancy effect)
Q.845: What is the educational term for the psychological burden experienced by individuals when they fear confirming a negative cultural stereotype about their group?
Answer: Stereotype threat
Q.846: What is the learning theory developed by David Kolb emphasizing that learning is a four-stage cycle involving concrete experience, reflective observation, abstract conceptualization, and active experimentation?
Answer: Experiential learning theory
Q.847: What is the learning style framework proposed by Neil Fleming that categorizes learners into Visual, Auditory, Reading/Writing, and Kinesthetic preferences (VARK)?
Answer: VARK learning styles model
Q.848: What is the educational psychology term for the psychological state of deep absorption, complete focus, and energized enjoyment experienced when fully immersed in an activity (Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi)?
Answer: Flow state
Q.849: What is the educational strategy where traditional direct lecture is moved outside the classroom (via videos) while active problem-solving and homework are completed in class?
Answer: Flipped classroom
Q.850: What is the educational framework that uses gaming elements, points, and leaderboards to increase student engagement and motivation in learning environments?
Answer: Gamification in education
Q.851: What is the social psychology concept describing how people adjust their communication styles, speech patterns, and behaviors to match or diverge from conversational partners (Howard Giles)?
Answer: Communication accommodation theory
Q.852: What is the social psychology term for the unspoken rules, cultural expectations, and unwritten guidelines that dictate acceptable behavior within a group or society?
Answer: Social norms
Q.853: What is the tendency for individuals to attribute their own positive behaviors to internal traits while attributing their negative behaviors to situational pressures?
Answer: Actor-observer bias
Q.854: What is the social psychology term for the mental shortcuts or general impressions used to evaluate social targets quickly without deep cognitive processing?
Answer: Social schemas and heuristics
Q.855: What is the phenomenon where physical proximity fosters the formation of interpersonal relationships and social bonds?
Answer: Proximity effect (Propinquity effect)
Q.856: What is the social psychology exchange theory proposing that human relationships are maintained by maximizing rewards and minimizing costs?
Answer: Social exchange theory
Q.857: What is the social norm requiring individuals to repay in kind what another person has provided for them (Reciprocity norm)?
Answer: Reciprocity norm
Q.858: What is the social responsibility norm dictating that people should help others who depend on them without expecting future repayment?
Answer: Social responsibility norm
Q.859: What is the aggressive behavior driven by anger, emotional arousal, and the primary intent to cause physical or psychological harm to another person?
Answer: Hostile aggression (Affective aggression)
Q.860: What is the aggressive behavior executed as a means to achieve an explicit goal, material reward, or external objective rather than out of pure anger?
Answer: Instrumental aggression
Q.861: What is the social learning concept stating that aggressive habits and violent attitudes are acquired through observing and imitating aggressive models in media or real life?
Answer: Observational learning of aggression
Q.862: What is the social psychology phenomenon where individuals adopt the values, attitudes, and behaviors of a reference group to fit in or gain social acceptance?
Answer: Normative social influence
Q.863: What is the social influence phenomenon where individuals conform to group opinions because they believe the group possesses superior or accurate information about reality?
Answer: Informational social influence
Q.864: What is the compliance technique involving a small initial request followed later by a much larger, target request (Foot-in-the-door technique)?
Answer: Foot-in-the-door technique
Q.865: What is the compliance strategy where a persuader makes an extreme request that is certain to be refused, followed immediately by a smaller, reasonable request?
Answer: Door-in-the-face technique
Q.866: What is the compliance technique where an attractive offer is made, but after agreement is secured, hidden costs or less favorable conditions are revealed?
Answer: Low-ball technique
Q.867: What is the sales and persuasion technique where a product or deal is offered at an exceptionally low price, but immediately upgraded or switched to a higher-priced item?
Answer: Bait-and-switch technique
Q.868: What is the social influence concept where minority groups or dissenting individuals can influence majority opinion through consistent, unwavering non-violent behavioral style?
Answer: Minority influence
Q.869: What is the educational psychology model developed by Robert Gagné that outlines nine instructional events necessary to facilitate effective learning and skill acquisition?
Answer: Gagné’s conditions of learning
Q.870: What is the instructional design model widely used in education that stands for Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation?
Answer: ADDIE model
Q.871: What is the cognitive load theory concept proposed by John Sweller that refers to the mental effort required to process information within working memory limits?
Answer: Cognitive load theory
Q.872: What are the three distinct types of cognitive load identified in cognitive load theory?
Answer: Intrinsic, extraneous, and germane cognitive load
Q.873: What is the educational psychology term for the instructional strategy where complex problems are presented first, and students learn content through collaborative problem-solving?
Answer: Problem-based learning (PBL)
Q.874: What is the inquiry-based instructional method where teachers present driving questions and real-world investigations for students to explore over an extended period?
Answer: Project-based learning
Q.875: What is the educational strategy that divides academic material into small units, allowing students to master each unit at their own individual pace before advancing?
Answer: Mastery learning (Benjamin Bloom)
Q.876: What is the school-wide multi-tiered behavioral framework designed to prevent problem behaviors and establish positive social cultures in educational settings (PBIS)?
Answer: Positive Behavioral Interventions and Supports
Q.877: What is the educational term for a student’s internal sense of belonging, acceptance, and inclusion within a school community?
Answer: School connectedness (School belonging)
Q.878: What is the psychological theory of human motivation developed by Edward Deci and Richard Ryan focusing on autonomy, competence, and relatedness?
Answer: Self-determination theory
Q.879: What are the three core psychological needs proposed in Self-Determination Theory?
Answer: Autonomy, competence, and relatedness
Q.880: What is the educational mindset concept developed by Carol Dweck distinguishing between fixed intelligence and expandable intelligence?
Answer: Growth mindset vs. fixed mindset
Q.881: What is the social psychology term for the tendency of group discussions to produce more extreme group decisions than the initial average opinions of individual members?
Answer: Group polarization
Q.882: What is the social psychology term for the physical or psychological separation between groups that fosters outgroup hostility and stereotyping?
Answer: Outgroup homogeneity effect
Q.883: What is the cognitive bias where people perceive members of an outgroup as being much more similar to one another than members of their own ingroup?
Answer: Outgroup homogeneity effect
Q.884: What is the social psychology concept where individuals modify their behavior to match the perceived expectations of an evaluator or experimenter (Demand characteristics)?
Answer: Demand characteristics
Q.885: What is the research bias where experimenters unconsciously influence research participants to support their hypothesis through subtle behavioral cues?
Answer: Experimenter expectancy effect
Q.886: What is the research design feature where neither the participants nor the researchers know who receives the active treatment or placebo, eliminating bias?
Answer: Double-blind study
Q.887: What is the educational testing term for the extent to which a test predicts future academic success or real-world performance criteria?
Answer: Predictive validity
Q.888: What is the educational psychology term for the evaluation method that tests a student’s ability to apply knowledge to real-world, meaningful tasks rather than abstract tests?
Answer: Authentic assessment (Performance assessment)
Q.889: What is the educational portfolio assessment technique where students compile a structured collection of their academic work over time to demonstrate growth?
Answer: Portfolio assessment
Q.890: What is the educational testing term for the practice of evaluating students using standardized tests administered under uniform conditions nationwide?
Answer: Standardized testing
Q.891: What is the educational psychology term for the internal mental processes—such as attention, memory, encoding, and retrieval—used during learning?
Answer: Information-processing approach to learning
Q.892: What is the educational strategy of breaking down instructional content into small, digestible units with immediate feedback, pioneered by B.F. Skinner (Programmed instruction)?
Answer: Programmed instruction
Q.893: What is the educational technology concept where computer software adapts instructional difficulty dynamically based on individual student performance?
Answer: Adaptive learning technology
Q.894: What is the specialized educational psychology subfield focused on identifying and supporting gifted and talented students with advanced intellectual potential?
Answer: Psychology of gifted education
Q.895: What is the educational term for the practice of educating students with special needs alongside typical peers in general education classrooms?
Answer: Inclusive education (Mainstreaming)
Q.896: What is the legal educational framework in many countries that mandates individualized education programs (IEPs) for students with special learning disabilities?
Answer: Special education legislation (e.g., IDEA)
Q.897: What is the customized legal document developed by a multidisciplinary educational team outlining specific educational goals and accommodations for a student with disabilities?
Answer: Individualized Education Program (IEP)
Q.898: What is the specialized educational support plan developed for students with disabilities who do not require special education instruction but need classroom accommodations (Section 504 plan)?
Answer: 504 accommodation plan
Q.899: What is the educational psychology term for the phenomenon where students attribute academic failure to lack of inherent ability rather than effort, leading to academic giving up (Learned helplessness in school)?
Answer: Learned helplessness in academic settings
Q.900: What is the overarching goal of social and educational psychology aimed at understanding how social environments, cognitive processes, and group dynamics shape human behavior, learning, and societal interactions?
Answer: Comprehensive analysis of social interaction and educational development
Research Methods & Statistics in Psychology
Q.901: What is the specialized branch of psychological science that focuses on the systematic design of studies, data collection, and quantitative analysis of behavior?
Answer: Research Methods and Statistics in Psychology
Q.902: What is the foundational scientific process of gathering empirical evidence through systematic observation and experimentation to test hypotheses?
Answer: Empirical research method
Q.903: What is the specific, testable prediction about the relationship between two or more variables derived from a psychological theory?
Answer: Research hypothesis
Q.904: What is the formal statement in hypothesis testing that posits no significant difference, relationship, or effect exists between variables (H0)?
Answer: Null hypothesis
Q.905: What is the research statement that predicts a significant effect, difference, or relationship will be found in a study (H1)?
Answer: Alternative hypothesis (Research hypothesis)
Q.906: What is the variable in an experiment that is systematically manipulated or controlled by the researcher to observe its effect?
Answer: Independent variable (IV)
Q.907: What is the variable that is measured by the researcher to assess the effect of the independent variable?
Answer: Dependent variable (DV)
Q.908: What is the exact, measurable description of how a theoretical variable or construct is defined and quantified in a specific study?
Answer: Operational definition
Q.909: What is the research design where researchers observe and record behaviors in natural settings without intervening or manipulating variables?
Answer: Naturalistic observation
Q.910: What is the descriptive research method that involves an in-depth, intensive investigation of a single individual, small group, or rare phenomenon?
Answer: Case study method
Q.911: What is the research method that uses questionnaires or interviews to gather self-reported attitudes, opinions, or behaviors from a large sample of participants?
Answer: Survey research
Q.912: What is the statistical measure that assesses the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables (ranging from -1.00 to +1.00)?
Answer: Correlation coefficient (Pearson’s r)
Q.913: What is the statistical and logical principle stating that correlation does not automatically mean that one variable causes the other?
Answer: Correlation does not imply causation
Q.914: What is the research design that allows scientists to determine cause-and-effect relationships by manipulating an independent variable and controlling extraneous variables?
Answer: Experimental research design
Q.915: What is the experimental procedure where every participant has an equal and random chance of being assigned to either the experimental or control group?
Answer: Random assignment
Q.916: What is the sampling method where every member of the target population has an equal and independent chance of being selected for the study?
Answer: Simple random sampling
Q.917: What is the sampling technique where the researcher divides the target population into distinct subgroups and randomly selects proportional samples from each?
Answer: Stratified random sampling
Q.918: What is the research error where the sample selected does not accurately represent the broader target population, limiting generalizability?
Answer: Sampling bias (Selection bias)
Q.919: What is the experimental condition where participants receive a fake treatment, inert pill, or inactive procedure to control for psychological expectation effects?
Answer: Placebo condition
Q.920: What is the research study design where neither the participants nor the researchers interacting with them know who belongs to the experimental or control group?
Answer: Double-blind study
Q.921: What is the term for any variable other than the independent variable that can unintentionally influence the dependent variable and confound study results?
Answer: Confounding variable (Extraneous variable)
Q.922: What is the psychometric property of a research measure that refers to the consistency, stability, and repeatability of test scores?
Answer: Reliability
Q.923: What is the psychometric property that evaluates whether a research tool or test actually measures what it claims to measure?
Answer: Validity
Q.924: What is the type of validity that ensures an experiment’s results can be attributed strictly to the manipulation of the independent variable rather than confounds?
Answer: Internal validity
Q.925: What is the type of validity that refers to the extent to which research findings can be generalized to other populations, settings, and times?
Answer: External validity
Q.926: What is the statistical branch used to summarize, organize, and describe the main features of a dataset using indices like mean, median, and standard deviation?
Answer: Descriptive statistics
Q.927: What is the statistical branch used to make inferences, test hypotheses, and generalize findings from a sample to a broader population?
Answer: Inferential statistics
Q.928: What is the statistical measure of central tendency calculated by summing all scores and dividing by the total number of observations (average)?
Answer: Mean
Q.929: What is the statistical measure of central tendency that represents the exact middle score when all data points are arranged in numerical order?
Answer: Median
Q.930: What is the statistical measure of central tendency that identifies the most frequently occurring score in a dataset?
Answer: Mode
Q.931: What is the descriptive statistical measure that indicates the spread or dispersion of data scores around the mean?
Answer: Standard deviation
Q.932: What is the measure of variability calculated by taking the square root of the variance?
Answer: Standard deviation
Q.933: What is the statistical curve representing a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution where mean, median, and mode are all equal?
Answer: Normal distribution (Gaussian distribution)
Q.934: What is the standardized score that indicates how many standard deviations a given data point is above or below the mean?
Answer: Z-score (Standard score)
Q.935: What is the significance level set by researchers before conducting statistical tests, representing the maximum probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis (typically 0.05)?
Answer: Alpha level ($p$-value threshold)
Q.936: What is the statistical error that occurs when a researcher incorrectly rejects a true null hypothesis (false positive)?
Answer: Type I error ($\alpha$ error)
Q.937: What is the statistical error that occurs when a researcher fails to reject a false null hypothesis (false negative)?
Answer: Type II error ($\beta$ error)
Q.938: What is the statistical term for the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis (detecting a true effect when it exists)?
Answer: Statistical power ($1 – \beta$)
Q.939: What is the parametric statistical test used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the means of two independent groups?
Answer: Independent samples t-test
Q.940: What is the parametric statistical test used to compare the means of three or more independent groups simultaneously while controlling for overall error rate?
Answer: Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
Q.941: What is the non-parametric statistical test used to determine whether there is a significant association between two categorical variables in contingency tables?
Answer: Chi-square test ($\chi^2$)
Q.942: What is the non-parametric alternative to the independent samples t-test used when data are ordinal or violate assumptions of normality?
Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Q.943: What is the ethical principle in psychological research ensuring that participants voluntarily choose to participate after being informed of all potential risks and benefits?
Answer: Informed consent
Q.944: What is the ethical procedure conducted immediately after a study concludes where researchers reveal any deception and explain the true purpose of the experiment?
Answer: Debriefing
Q.945: What is the institutional committee mandated by universities and research organizations to review research proposals and protect human participant rights?
Answer: Institutional Review Board (IRB)
Q.946: What is the research design where data are collected from the same group of participants repeatedly over an extended period as they age or develop?
Answer: Longitudinal research design
Q.947: What is the research design where groups of participants of different ages are studied simultaneously at a single point in time?
Answer: Cross-sectional research design
Q.948: What is the research design that combines longitudinal and cross-sectional approaches by following multiple age cohorts over time?
Answer: Cross-sequential research design
Q.949: What is the research term for the distortion in cross-sectional studies where differences between age groups result from historical or generational experiences rather than aging?
Answer: Cohort effect
Q.950: What is the research method where a single participant serves as their own control in evaluating the effectiveness of an intervention (e.g., ABAB design)?
Answer: Single-subject experimental design (Single-case design)
Q.951: What is the baseline phase in a single-subject research design where behavior is observed and measured prior to introducing any intervention?
Answer: Baseline phase (A phase)
Q.952: What is the intervention phase in a single-subject design where the experimental treatment or behavioral manipulation is applied?
Answer: Treatment phase (B phase)
Q.953: What is the research technique used to combine and synthesize the statistical results of multiple independent studies addressing the same research question?
Answer: Meta-analysis
Q.954: What is the statistical metric used in meta-analyses to express the magnitude of an experimental effect in standardized units (e.g., Cohen’s d)?
Answer: Effect size
Q.955: What is the research bias where studies yielding statistically significant results are published much more frequently than those showing null findings?
Answer: Publication bias (File-drawer problem)
Q.956: What is the statistical technique used to predict the value of a dependent variable based on the known value of one or more independent predictor variables?
Answer: Regression analysis (Linear regression)
Q.957: What is the multivariate statistical technique used to analyze interrelationships among a large number of variables and group them into underlying factors?
Answer: Factor analysis
Q.958: What is the statistical measure of the proportion of variance in one variable that is predictable from another variable (squared correlation coefficient)?
Answer: Coefficient of determination ($R^2$)
Q.959: What is the research validity threat where participants drop out or withdraw from a longitudinal study before completion, skewing final results?
Answer: Attrition bias (Mortality threat)
Q.960: What is the research threat where participants improve their performance on a psychological test simply because they have taken it multiple times?
Answer: Testing effect (Practice effect)
Q.961: What is the research design artifact where participants alter their natural behavior simply because they know they are being observed (Hawthorne effect)?
Answer: Hawthorne effect
Q.962: What is the research error where an interviewer’s or researcher’s personal expectations subtly influence how they record participant responses?
Answer: Observer bias (Experimenter bias)
Q.963: What is the quantitative research method where variables are measured without manipulation to establish associations, while qualitative methods focus on narrative data?
Answer: Quantitative versus Qualitative research
Q.964: What is the qualitative research method that involves immersive, long-term observation of a culture, community, or social group from an insider perspective?
Answer: Ethnography
Q.965: What is the qualitative research approach aimed at generating an abstract theory directly from the data collected through rigorous coding and comparative analysis?
Answer: Grounded theory
Q.966: What is the qualitative research method focused on exploring and describing the lived conscious experiences of individuals experiencing a specific phenomenon?
Answer: Phenomenological research
Q.967: What is the qualitative data analysis technique that involves systematically searching through text transcripts to identify, analyze, and report repeating patterns or themes?
Answer: Thematic analysis
Q.968: What is the qualitative term for the degree of trust, truthfulness, and accuracy of qualitative research findings (equivalent to internal validity)?
Answer: Credibility (in qualitative research)
Q.969: What is the qualitative term for the degree to which research findings can be applied or transferred to other contexts or settings (equivalent to external validity)?
Answer: Transferability
Q.970: What is the qualitative evaluation criterion that ensures research procedures are clear, documented, and capable of being audited by an independent reviewer?
Answer: Confirmability and dependability
Q.971: What is the statistical term for the sum of squared deviations from the mean divided by the degrees of freedom?
Answer: Variance
Q.972: What is the number of independent values or observations in a statistical calculation that are free to vary ($N – 1$)?
Answer: Degrees of freedom (df)
Q.973: What is the non-parametric statistical test used to determine whether two paired or dependent groups differ significantly on a continuous or ordinal variable?
Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Q.974: What is the non-parametric statistical test used to compare three or more matched or dependent groups (non-parametric equivalent of repeated-measures ANOVA)?
Answer: Friedman test
Q.975: What is the advanced statistical procedure used to test and evaluate complex theoretical models involving multiple independent and dependent latent variables (SEM)?
Answer: Structural Equation Modeling
Q.976: What is the statistical technique used to evaluate whether the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable depends on the level of a third moderator variable?
Answer: Moderation analysis
Q.977: What is the statistical technique used to examine the underlying mechanism or pathway through which an independent variable exerts its effect on a dependent variable?
Answer: Mediation analysis
Q.978: What is the research term for data that are missing because participants failed to answer specific survey items or missed a follow-up session?
Answer: Missing data
Q.979: What is the statistical technique used to replace missing data points by estimating values based on other available participant responses (imputation)?
Answer: Data imputation
Q.980: What is the ethical guideline in psychological research ensuring that participants’ personal data and responses cannot be traced back to their identity?
Answer: Anonymity and confidentiality in research
Q.981: What is the animal research guideline principle that requires researchers to minimize pain, suffering, and distress in laboratory animals (Replacement, Reduction, Refinement)?
Answer: The Three Rs of animal research ethics
Q.982: What is the research practice of transparently reporting all hypotheses, data exclusions, and analyses before conducting a study to prevent questionable research practices?
Answer: Preregistration
Q.983: What is the open science movement practice where researchers make their raw data, analysis scripts, and study materials publicly accessible online?
Answer: Open science and data sharing
Q.984: What is the research validity threat where maturation or natural developmental changes over time account for changes in the dependent variable rather than the treatment?
Answer: Maturation threat
Q.985: What is the research threat where an unexpected, major external event occurs during a study that influences participant responses independently of the independent variable?
Answer: History threat
Q.986: What is the research threat where extreme pre-test scores naturally move closer to the group average upon re-testing due to random measurement error?
Answer: Statistical regression to the mean
Q.987: What is the research bias where participants give socially desirable answers to make themselves look good rather than reporting true behaviors?
Answer: Social desirability bias
Q.988: What is the experimental design feature where the order of treatment conditions is varied across participants to control for order and fatigue effects?
Answer: Counterbalancing
Q.989: What is the statistical power determinant that refers to the total number of participants included in a research study?
Answer: Sample size ($N$)
Q.990: What is the statistical calculation performed prior to conducting a study to determine the minimum sample size required to detect a significant effect?
Answer: A priori power analysis
Q.991: What is the research methodology that collects repeated, real-time data from participants in their natural environments using smartphones or electronic diaries (EMA)?
Answer: Ecological Momentary Assessment
Q.992: What is the experimental design where different participants are assigned to each condition of the experiment (Between-subjects design)?
Answer: Between-subjects design
Q.993: What is the experimental design where the same group of participants experiences all conditions of the study sequentially (Within-subjects design)?
Answer: Within-subjects design (Repeated-measures design)
Q.994: What is the research design combining features of both experimental and observational studies, often lacking random assignment (Quasi-experimental design)?
Answer: Quasi-experimental design
Q.995: What is the quasi-experimental design that measures a dependent variable at multiple time points before and after the introduction of an intervention (Interrupted time-series)?
Answer: Interrupted time-series design
Q.996: What is the psychometric method used to evaluate test items based on item difficulty and item discrimination curves (Item Response Theory)?
Answer: Item Response Theory (IRT)
Q.997: What is the statistical reliability coefficient used to measure internal consistency of a psychometric test, representing the average split-half correlation (Cronbach’s alpha)?
Answer: Cronbach’s alpha
Q.998: What is the research term for the degree of agreement or consistency between two or more independent raters coding qualitative or observational data?
Answer: Inter-rater reliability (Cohen’s kappa)
Q.999: What is the scientific concept of reproducibility that refers to the ability of independent researchers to obtain the same results when replicating a study using identical procedures?
Answer: Replicability in scientific research
Q.1000: What is the overarching goal of research methods and statistics in psychology to systematically discover empirical truths, test theoretical models, and advance evidence-based knowledge?
Answer: Systematic scientific inquiry and empirical validation
Here is a randomized set of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all four topics (Learning & Behavioral Psychology, Social Psychology, Educational Psychology, and Research Methods & Statistics), formatted in test style with a complete answer key at the end.
Test : Multiple-Choice Questions (1 to 100)
Q.1: Who is credited with discovering classical conditioning while studying digestive reflexes in dogs?
-
A) B.F. Skinner
-
B) Ivan Pavlov
-
C) John B. Watson
-
D) Edward Thorndike
Q.2: What term describes the tendency for people to exert less effort when working collectively toward a common goal compared to working individually?
-
A) Social facilitation
-
B) Deindividuation
-
C) Social loafing
-
D) Group polarization
Q.3: In research methods, what type of validity ensures that an experiment’s results can be attributed strictly to the manipulation of the independent variable rather than confounds?
-
A) External validity
-
B) Internal validity
-
C) Ecological validity
-
D) Construct validity
Q.4: Which educational psychology concept refers to the optimal range of difficulty where a student can master a new task with guidance or peer support?
-
A) Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
-
B) Scaffolding
-
C) Cognitive Load
-
D) Mastery Learning
Q.5: What is the term for an originally neutral stimulus that, through repeated pairing with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to elicit a conditioned response?
-
A) Unconditioned stimulus
-
B) Conditioned stimulus
-
C) Discriminative stimulus
-
D) Primary reinforcer
Q.6: What is the uncomfortable psychological tension that arises when an individual simultaneously holds two contradictory beliefs or attitudes?
-
A) Cognitive dissonance
-
B) Groupthink
-
C) Fundamental attribution error
-
D) Self-serving bias
Q.7: Which statistical measure of central tendency represents the exact middle score when all data points are arranged in numerical order?
-
A) Mean
-
B) Mode
-
C) Median
-
D) Standard deviation
Q.8: What type of academic motivation is driven by internal rewards, personal curiosity, and a desire to learn for its own sake?
-
A) Extrinsic motivation
-
B) Intrinsic motivation
-
C) Achievement motivation
-
D) Social motivation
Q.9: Who formulated the Law of Effect, stating that behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are strengthened?
-
A) B.F. Skinner
-
B) Albert Bandura
-
C) Edward Thorndike
-
D) John Watson
Q.10: Which social psychology experiment demonstrated the powerful influence of social roles and situational pressures in a simulated prison environment?
-
A) Milgram obedience experiment
-
B) Asch line experiment
-
C) Stanford prison experiment
-
D) Bobo doll experiment
Q.11: What is the statistical error that occurs when a researcher incorrectly rejects a true null hypothesis (a false positive)?
-
A) Type II error
-
B) Type I error
-
C) Beta error
-
D) Sampling error
Q.12: Who developed the cognitive developmental theory proposing that children actively construct knowledge by interacting with their physical and social environment?
-
A) Lev Vygotsky
-
B) Jean Piaget
-
C) Benjamin Bloom
-
D) Carol Dweck
Q.13: What operant conditioning process involves strengthening a behavior by removing or escaping from an unpleasant stimulus?
-
A) Positive reinforcement
-
B) Negative reinforcement
-
C) Positive punishment
-
D) Response cost
Q.14: What is the psychological tendency to give more weight to internal dispositional traits than to external situational factors when explaining other people’s behavior?
-
A) Actor-observer bias
-
B) Self-serving bias
-
C) Fundamental attribution error
-
D) Just-world hypothesis
Q.15: What is the standardized score that indicates how many standard deviations a given data point is above or below the mean?
-
A) T-score
-
B) Z-score
-
C) F-ratio
-
D) Chi-square
Q.16: Which instructional design model stands for Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation?
-
A) ADDIE model
-
B) Gagné’s conditions
-
C) Bloom’s taxonomy
-
D) Constructivist model
Q.17: What is the famous experiment conducted by Albert Bandura in 1961 that demonstrated children learn aggressive behaviors by observing adult models?
-
A) Little Albert experiment
-
B) Bobo doll experiment
-
C) Prison simulation study
-
D) Hawthorne study
Q.18: What is the route to persuasion described by the elaboration likelihood model that involves deep, thoughtful consideration of message arguments and logical content?
-
A) Peripheral route
-
B) Central route
-
C) Heuristic route
-
D) Superficial route
Q.19: What research design collects data from the same group of participants repeatedly over an extended period as they age?
-
A) Cross-sectional design
-
B) Longitudinal design
-
C) Cross-sequential design
-
D) Case study design
Q.20: What educational mindset concept developed by Carol Dweck distinguishes between fixed intelligence and expandable intelligence?
-
A) Self-efficacy
-
B) Locus of control
-
C) Growth vs. fixed mindset
-
D) Attribution theory
Q.21: What is the term for learning that occurs without any immediate reinforcement or overt behavioral demonstration, famously studied by Edward Tolman with rats in mazes?
-
A) Insight learning
-
B) Latent learning
-
C) Observational learning
-
D) Habituation
Q.22: What is the psychological phenomenon where individuals lose their sense of personal identity and accountability when in a large, anonymous crowd?
-
A) Social loafing
-
B) Deindividuation
-
C) Group polarization
-
D) Conformity
Q.23: What is the psychometric property of a research measure that refers to the consistency, stability, and repeatability of test scores?
-
A) Validity
-
B) Reliability
-
C) Standardization
-
D) Norming
Q.24: What is the educational strategy developed by Elliot Aronson where students are divided into interdependent small groups to master material and reduce racial prejudice?
-
A) Flipped classroom
-
B) Jigsaw classroom technique
-
C) Problem-based learning
-
D) Mastery learning
Q.25: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon where a conditioned response gradually weakens and disappears when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus?
-
A) Spontaneous recovery
-
B) Extinction
-
C) Stimulus generalization
-
D) Discrimination
Q.26: What is the compliance technique involving a small initial request followed later by a much larger, target request?
-
A) Door-in-the-face technique
-
B) Low-ball technique
-
C) Foot-in-the-door technique
-
D) Bait-and-switch technique
Q.27: What statistical test is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the means of two independent groups?
-
A) Chi-square test
-
B) Independent samples t-test
-
C) ANOVA
-
D) Pearson correlation
Q.28: What is the psychological theory of human motivation developed by Edward Deci and Richard Ryan focusing on autonomy, competence, and relatedness?
-
A) Drive-reduction theory
-
B) Self-determination theory
-
C) Hierarchy of needs
-
D) Expectancy-value model
Q.29: What is the behavioral phenomenon studied by Martin Seligman where animals or humans exposed to inescapable aversive shocks later fail to take action to escape when possible?
-
A) Extinction burst
-
B) Learned helplessness
-
C) Habituation
-
D) Instinctive drift
Q.30: What term describes an unjustified, typically negative attitude toward a social group and its individual members?
-
A) Stereotype
-
B) Discrimination
-
C) Prejudice
-
D) Ethnocentrism
Q.31: What is the non-parametric statistical test used to determine whether there is a significant association between two categorical variables?
-
A) t-test
-
B) Chi-square test (χ2)
-
C) Mann-Whitney U test
-
D) ANOVA
Q.32: What educational assessment type is designed to evaluate student learning progress at the end of an instructional unit or term to assign grades?
-
A) Formative assessment
-
B) Summative assessment
-
C) Diagnostic assessment
-
D) Authentic assessment
Q.33: What is the operant conditioning procedure where complex behaviors are taught by reinforcing successive approximations toward the final target behavior?
-
A) Shaping
-
B) Chaining
-
C) Premack principle
-
D) Token economy
Q.34: What is the social psychology term for generalized beliefs, expectations, or cognitive categorizations about the personal traits of members of a specific group?
-
A) Prejudice
-
B) Discrimination
-
C) Stereotype
-
D) Schema
Q.35: What ethical procedure is conducted immediately after a study concludes where researchers reveal any deception and explain the true purpose of the experiment?
-
A) Informed consent
-
B) Debriefing
-
C) IRB review
-
D) Preregistration
Q.36: What educational psychology term describes the psychological phenomenon where high teacher expectations lead to improved student academic performance?
-
A) Hawthorne effect
-
B) Pygmalion effect
-
C) Stereotype threat
-
D) Halo effect
Q.37: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon discovered by John Garcia where organisms associate the taste of food with sickness after a single trial?
-
A) Garcia effect (Taste aversion)
-
B) Blocking effect
-
C) Overshadowing
-
D) Preparedness theory
Q.38: What is the triangular theory of love proposed by Robert Sternberg composed of intimacy, passion, and commitment?
-
A) Attachment theory
-
B) Triangular theory of love
-
C) Social exchange theory
-
D) Proximity model
Q.39: What statistical metric is used in meta-analyses to express the magnitude of an experimental effect in standardized units?
-
A) P-value
-
B) Effect size (e.g., Cohen’s d)
-
C) Confidence interval
-
D) Standard error
Q.40: What is the educational strategy where traditional direct lecture is moved outside the classroom via videos while active problem-solving is completed in class?
-
A) Gamification
-
B) Flipped classroom
-
C) Programmed instruction
-
D) Adaptive learning
Q.41: What is the behavioral technique that pairs an unwanted, self-defeating behavior with an unpleasant, nauseating stimulus to eliminate the habit?
-
A) Systematic desensitization
-
B) Aversive conditioning
-
C) Flooding
-
D) Token economy
Q.42: What is the form of social influence where an individual changes their behavior in direct response to a command from an authority figure?
-
A) Conformity
-
B) Obedience
-
C) Compliance
-
D) Persuasion
Q.43: What is the research bias where studies yielding statistically significant results are published much more frequently than those showing null findings?
-
A) Attrition bias
-
B) Publication bias (File-drawer problem)
-
C) Sampling bias
-
D) Observer bias
Q.44: What is the cognitive load theory concept proposed by John Sweller that refers to the mental effort required to process information within working memory limits?
-
A) Schema capacity
-
B) Cognitive load theory
-
C) Information-processing limit
-
D) Working memory span
Q.45: What is the specialized behavioral technique used in special education to break down skills into discrete, structured instructional trials (DTT)?
-
A) Discrete Trial Training
-
B) Functional behavioral assessment
-
C) Backward chaining
-
D) Systematic desensitization
Q.46: What is the social psychological theory stating that prejudice and intergroup hostility arise from competition over scarce resources?
-
A) Social identity theory
-
B) Realistic conflict theory
-
C) Frustration-aggression hypothesis
-
D) Scapegoat theory
Q.47: What research design combines features of both experimental and observational studies, typically lacking random assignment?
-
A) True experimental design
-
B) Quasi-experimental design
-
C) Single-subject design
-
D) Correlational design
Q.48: What is the educational term for a student’s internal sense of belonging, acceptance, and inclusion within a school community?
-
A) Academic self-efficacy
-
B) School connectedness
-
C) Motivational climate
-
D) Institutional attachment
Q.49: What is the psychological law proposed by Yerkes and Dodson stating that performance on tasks is best at an intermediate level of arousal?
-
A) Law of Effect
-
B) Yerkes-Dodson law
-
C) Weber’s law
-
D) Premack principle
Q.50: What compliance strategy involves a persuader making an extreme request that is certain to be refused, followed immediately by a smaller, reasonable request?
-
A) Foot-in-the-door
-
B) Door-in-the-face
-
C) Low-ball technique
-
D) That’s-not-all technique
Q.51: What is the research validity threat where participants drop out or withdraw from a longitudinal study before completion, skewing final results?
-
A) Maturation threat
-
B) History threat
-
C) Attrition bias (Mortality threat)
-
D) Testing effect
Q.52: What is the educational testing approach that compares a student’s score against a fixed performance standard or learning criterion rather than against peer scores?
-
A) Norm-referenced testing
-
B) Criterion-referenced testing
-
C) Standardized testing
-
D) Formative testing
Q.53: What is the behavioral principle stating that a high-frequency, preferred activity can be used to reinforce a low-frequency, less preferred activity?
-
A) Premack principle
-
B) Token economy
-
C) Law of Effect
-
D) Shaping
Q.54: What is the social exchange theory proposition that human relationships are maintained by?
-
A) Maximizing costs and minimizing rewards
-
B) Maximizing rewards and minimizing costs
-
C) Eliminating social comparison
-
D) Equal distribution of power
Q.55: What is the research method that uses questionnaires or interviews to gather self-reported attitudes and opinions from a large sample?
-
A) Naturalistic observation
-
B) Survey research
-
C) Case study
-
D) Ethnography
Q.56: What is the educational psychology term for the evaluation method that tests a student’s ability to apply knowledge to real-world, meaningful tasks?
-
A) Standardized testing
-
B) Authentic assessment
-
C) Objective testing
-
D) Norm-referenced assessment
Q.57: What conditioning model developed by Robert Rescorla and Allan Wagner mathematically predicts conditioned strength based on cue surprise value?
-
A) Classical conditioning model
-
B) Rescorla-Wagner model
-
C) Operant choice model
-
D) Expectancy-value model
Q.58: What is the social psychology term for the unspoken rules, cultural expectations, and unwritten guidelines that dictate acceptable behavior?
-
A) Social norms
-
B) Social roles
-
C) Social schemas
-
D) Cultural heuristics
Q.59: What is the statistical technique used to predict the value of a dependent variable based on the known value of one or more independent predictor variables?
-
A) Factor analysis
-
B) Regression analysis
-
C) Correlation analysis
-
D) Discriminant analysis
Q.60: What is the specialized educational psychology subfield focused on identifying and supporting gifted and talented students with advanced intellectual potential?
-
A) Special education
-
B) Psychology of gifted education
-
C) Inclusive education
-
D) Remedial psychology
Q.61: Who introduced the concept of purposive behaviorism and cognitive maps, bridging behaviorism and cognitive psychology?
-
A) B.F. Skinner
-
B) Edward C. Tolman
-
C) John Watson
-
D) Clark Hull
Q.62: What is the social psychology term for the tendency of group discussions to produce more extreme group decisions than the initial average opinions?
-
A) Groupthink
-
B) Group polarization
-
C) Social facilitation
-
D) Deindividuation
Q.63: What is the statistical reliability coefficient used to measure internal consistency of a psychometric test, representing the average split-half correlation?
-
A) Cohen’s kappa
-
B) Cronbach’s alpha
-
C) Pearson’s r
-
D) Spearman’s rho
Q.64: What is the educational psychology term for the internal mental processes—such as attention, memory, encoding, and retrieval—used during learning?
-
A) Behavioral processing
-
B) Information-processing approach
-
C) Constructivist processing
-
D) Operant learning
Q.65: What is the operant schedule where reinforcement is delivered after an unpredictable, varying number of correct responses?
-
A) Fixed-ratio schedule
-
B) Variable-ratio schedule
-
C) Fixed-interval schedule
-
D) Variable-interval schedule
Q.66: What is the social psychology phenomenon where individuals modify their behavior to match the perceived expectations of an experimenter?
-
A) Hawthorne effect
-
B) Demand characteristics
-
C) Placebo effect
-
D) Pygmalion effect
Q.67: What research design involves studying groups of participants of different ages simultaneously at a single point in time?
-
A) Longitudinal design
-
B) Cross-sectional design
-
C) Cross-sequential design
-
D) Experimental design
Q.68: What is the legal educational framework in many countries that mandates individualized education programs (IEPs) for students with special learning disabilities?
-
A) Section 504 plan
-
B) Special education legislation (e.g., IDEA)
-
C) Civil Rights Act
-
D) Inclusive schooling act
Q.69: What is the term for the internal state of physiological arousal that energizes behavior to satisfy a primary biological need?
-
A) Secondary drive
-
B) Primary drive
-
C) Incentive
-
D) Homeostasis
Q.70: What is the social psychology concept describing how people adjust their communication styles, speech patterns, and behaviors to match conversational partners?
-
A) Communication accommodation theory
-
B) Social exchange theory
-
C) Expectancy-value model
-
D) Balance theory
Q.71: What is the parametric statistical test used to compare the means of three or more independent groups simultaneously?
-
A) Independent t-test
-
B) Chi-square test
-
C) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
-
D) Mann-Whitney U test
Q.72: What is the educational psychology term for a student’s belief in their own capability to execute behaviors necessary to perform specific academic tasks?
-
A) Academic self-efficacy
-
B) Locus of control
-
C) Self-esteem
-
D) Mastery motivation
Q.73: What is the neurobiological structure discovered by Olds and Milner that acts as the primary reward and reinforcement pathway involving dopamine?
-
A) Amygdala
-
B) Mesolimbic dopamine pathway
-
C) Hippocampus
-
D) Prefrontal cortex
Q.74: What is the compliance technique where an attractive offer is made, but after agreement is secured, hidden costs or less favorable conditions are revealed?
-
A) Low-ball technique
-
B) Foot-in-the-door
-
C) Bait-and-switch
-
D) Door-in-the-face
Q.75: What is the research validity threat where maturation or natural developmental changes over time account for changes in the dependent variable rather than the treatment?
-
A) History threat
-
B) Maturation threat
-
C) Regression to the mean
-
D) Testing threat
Q.76: What is the educational strategy that divides academic material into small units, allowing students to master each unit at their own individual pace before advancing?
-
A) Problem-based learning
-
B) Mastery learning
-
C) Flipped classroom
-
D) Discovery learning
Q.77: What is the operant procedure where reinforcement is withheld for all behaviors except the specific target behavior designed to replace an undesirable one (DRO)?
-
A) Differential reinforcement of other behaviors (DRO)
-
B) Differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)
-
C) Differential reinforcement of low rates (DRL)
-
D) Response cost
Q.78: What is the social psychology term for the physical or psychological separation between groups that fosters outgroup homogeneity and stereotyping?
-
A) Outgroup homogeneity effect
-
B) Ingroup favoritism
-
C) Realistic conflict
-
D) Scapegoating
Q.79: What is the qualitative research method that involves immersive, long-term observation of a culture, community, or social group from an insider perspective?
-
A) Phenomenological research
-
B) Ethnography
-
C) Grounded theory
-
D) Case study
Q.80: What is the customized legal document developed by a multidisciplinary educational team outlining specific educational goals and accommodations for a student with disabilities?
-
A) 504 plan
-
B) Individualized Education Program (IEP)
-
C) Remedial contract
-
D) Accommodations profile
Q.81: What is the operant conditioning procedure where reinforcement is delivered after every single correct occurrence of the target behavior?
-
A) Intermittent reinforcement
-
B) Continuous reinforcement schedule
-
C) Variable ratio reinforcement
-
D) Fixed interval reinforcement
Q.82: What is the tendency for people to believe that the world is inherently fair and that people get what they deserve (often leading to victim-blaming)?
-
A) Self-serving bias
-
B) Just-world hypothesis
-
C) Fundamental attribution error
-
D) Actor-observer bias
Q.83: What descriptive statistical measure indicates the spread or dispersion of data scores around the mean?
-
A) Variance
-
B) Standard deviation
-
C) Range
-
D) Interquartile range
Q.84: What is the educational term for the psychological burden experienced by individuals when they fear confirming a negative cultural stereotype about their group?
-
A) Pygmalion effect
-
B) Stereotype threat
-
C) Test anxiety
-
D) Evaluation apprehension
Q.85: What is the classical conditioning phenomenon where a previously established conditioned stimulus blocks the conditioning of a new, accompanying neutral stimulus?
-
A) Overshadowing
-
B) Blocking effect
-
C) Latent inhibition
-
D) Extinction
Q.86: What is the social psychology term for an attitude or evaluative reaction toward a person, object, idea, or social group?
-
A) Stereotype
-
B) Attitude
-
C) Schema
-
D) Heuristic
Q.87: What is the statistical power determinant that refers to the total number of participants included in a research study?
-
A) Effect size
-
B) Sample size (N)
-
C) Alpha level
-
D) Degrees of freedom
Q.88: What is the instructional method inspired by Vygotsky where a teacher adjusts the level of support to fit a student’s current skill level, gradually withdrawing assistance?
-
A) Discovery learning
-
B) Instructional scaffolding
-
C) Direct instruction
-
D) Programmed learning
Q.89: What is the behavioral therapy technique that combines deep muscle relaxation with an anxiety hierarchy to systematically eliminate phobias?
-
A) Flooding
-
B) Systematic desensitization
-
C) Aversive conditioning
-
D) Token economy
Q.90: What is the social psychology term for the mental shortcuts or general impressions used to evaluate social targets quickly without deep cognitive processing?
-
A) Social schemas and heuristics
-
B) Cultural norms
-
C) Explicit attitudes
-
D) Central processing cues
Q.91: What is the qualitative research approach aimed at generating an abstract theory directly from the data collected through rigorous coding and comparative analysis?
-
A) Phenomenological research
-
B) Grounded theory
-
C) Ethnography
-
D) Thematic analysis
Q.92: What is the educational term for the practice of educating students with special needs alongside typical peers in general education classrooms?
-
A) Segregated education
-
B) Inclusive education (Mainstreaming)
-
C) Special instruction
-
D) Remedial tracking
Q.93: What is the operant conditioning term for any consequence that decreases or suppresses the frequency of the preceding behavior?
-
A) Reinforcement
-
B) Punishment
-
C) Extinction
-
D) Stimulus control
Q.94: What is the social psychology term for the favorable or unfavorable evaluative reaction toward a person or group?
-
A) Attitude
-
B) Stereotype
-
C) Prejudice
-
D) Norm
Q.95: What is the research validity threat where participants improve their performance on a psychological test simply because they have taken it multiple times?
-
A) Testing effect (Practice effect)
-
B) Maturation threat
-
C) Instrumentation bias
-
D) Attrition threat
Q.96: What is the educational strategy that presents driving questions and real-world investigations for students to explore over an extended period?
-
A) Problem-based learning
-
B) Project-based learning
-
C) Mastery learning
-
D) Direct instruction
Q.97: What is the statistical technique used to examine the underlying mechanism or pathway through which an independent variable exerts its effect on a dependent variable?
-
A) Moderation analysis
-
B) Mediation analysis
-
C) Factor analysis
-
D) Regression analysis
Q.98: What is the educational psychology term for the phenomenon where students attribute academic failure to lack of inherent ability rather than effort, leading to academic giving up?
-
A) Test anxiety
-
B) Learned helplessness in academic settings
-
C) Stereotype threat
-
D) Extrinsic burnout
Q.99: What is the research methodology that collects repeated, real-time data from participants in their natural environments using electronic devices (EMA)?
-
A) Laboratory observation
-
B) Ecological Momentary Assessment
-
C) Cross-sectional survey
-
D) Case study tracking
Q.100: What is the overarching goal of psychological research methods, learning theory, social dynamics, and educational psychology combined?
-
A) Systematic scientific inquiry and empirical validation of human behavior
-
B) Strict clinical diagnosis of psychopathology
-
C) Industrial product design optimization
-
D) Historical cultural preservation
Test : Answer Key (1 to 100)
-
B (Ivan Pavlov)
-
C (Social loafing)
-
B (Internal validity)
-
A (Zone of Proximal Development)
-
B (Conditioned stimulus)
-
A (Cognitive dissonance)
-
C (Median)
-
B (Intrinsic motivation)
-
C (Edward Thorndike)
-
C (Stanford prison experiment)
-
B (Type I error)
-
B (Jean Piaget)
-
B (Negative reinforcement)
-
C (Fundamental attribution error)
-
B (Z-score)
-
A (ADDIE model)
-
B (Bobo doll experiment)
-
B (Central route)
-
B (Longitudinal design)
-
C (Growth vs. fixed mindset)
-
B (Latent learning)
-
B (Deindividuation)
-
B (Reliability)
-
B (Jigsaw classroom technique)
-
B (Extinction)
-
C (Foot-in-the-door technique)
-
B (Independent samples t-test)
-
B (Self-determination theory)
-
B (Learned helplessness)
-
C (Prejudice)
-
B (Chi-square test)
-
B (Summative assessment)
-
A (Shaping)
-
C (Stereotype)
-
B (Debriefing)
-
B (Pygmalion effect)
-
A (Garcia effect / Taste aversion)
-
B (Triangular theory of love)
-
B (Effect size)
-
B (Flipped classroom)
-
B (Aversive conditioning)
-
B (Obedience)
-
B (Publication bias)
-
B (Cognitive load theory)
-
A (Discrete Trial Training)
-
B (Realistic conflict theory)
-
B (Quasi-experimental design)
-
B (School connectedness)
-
B (Yerkes-Dodson law)
-
B (Door-in-the-face)
-
C (Attrition bias)
-
B (Criterion-referenced testing)
-
A (Premack principle)
-
B (Maximizing rewards and minimizing costs)
-
B (Survey research)
-
B (Authentic assessment)
-
B (Rescorla-Wagner model)
-
A (Social norms)
-
B (Regression analysis)
-
B (Psychology of gifted education)
-
B (Edward C. Tolman)
-
B (Group polarization)
-
B (Cronbach’s alpha)
-
B (Information-processing approach)
-
B (Variable-ratio schedule)
-
B (Demand characteristics)
-
B (Cross-sectional design)
-
B (Special education legislation / IDEA)
-
B (Primary drive)
-
A (Communication accommodation theory)
-
C (Analysis of Variance / ANOVA)
-
A (Academic self-efficacy)
-
B (Mesolimbic dopamine pathway)
-
A (Low-ball technique)
-
B (Maturation threat)
-
B (Mastery learning)
-
A (Differential reinforcement of other behaviors / DRO)
-
A (Outgroup homogeneity effect)
-
B (Ethnography)
-
B (Individualized Education Program / IEP)
-
B (Continuous reinforcement schedule)
-
B (Just-world hypothesis)
-
B (Standard deviation)
-
B (Stereotype threat)
-
B (Blocking effect)
-
B (Attitude)
-
B (Sample size / N)
-
B (Instructional scaffolding)
-
B (Systematic desensitization)
-
A (Social schemas and heuristics)
-
B (Grounded theory)
-
B (Inclusive education)
-
B (Punishment)
-
A (Attitude)
-
A (Testing effect)
-
B (Project-based learning)
-
B (Mediation analysis)
-
B (Learned helplessness in academic settings)
-
B (Ecological Momentary Assessment)
-
A (Systematic scientific inquiry and empirical validation of human behavior)
Note for competitive exams preparation: Focus heavily on theorists like Jean Piaget, Erik Erikson, Lev Vygotsky, and Lawrence Kohlberg, along with core concepts of attachment and parenting styles, as these represent the most frequently tested areas in child psychology exams.
