Chemistry One-Liner PDF

CHEMISTRY COMPLETE CHEMICAL FORMULAS

ACIDS

H₂SO₄ – Sulphuric acid / Oil of vitriol
HNO₃ – Nitric acid / Aqua fortis
HCl – Hydrochloric acid / Muriatic acid
CH₃COOH – Acetic acid / Ethanoic acid / Glacial acid / Vinegar
H₂CO₃ – Carbonic acid
H₃PO₄ – Phosphoric acid
H₂SO₃ – Sulfurous acid
HNO₂ – Nitrous acid
H₂C₂O₄ – Oxalic acid
C₆H₈O₇ – Citric acid
C₄H₆O₆ – Tartaric acid
C₃H₆O₃ – Lactic acid
HCOOH – Formic acid / Methanoic acid
C₆H₅COOH – Benzoic acid
HClO – Hypochlorous acid
HClO₂ – Chlorous acid
HClO₃ – Chloric acid
HClO₄ – Perchloric acid
HBr – Hydrobromic acid
HI – Hydroiodic acid
HF – Hydrofluoric acid
HCN – Hydrocyanic acid
H₃BO₃ – Boric acid

BASES / HYDROXIDES

NaOH – Sodium hydroxide / Caustic soda
KOH – Potassium hydroxide / Caustic potash
Ca(OH)₂ – Calcium hydroxide / Slaked lime / Lime water
Mg(OH)₂ – Magnesium hydroxide / Milk of magnesia
Al(OH)₃ – Aluminum hydroxide
NH₄OH – Ammonium hydroxide

SODIUM SALTS

NaCl – Sodium chloride / Common salt
NaHCO₃ – Sodium bicarbonate / Baking soda
Na₂CO₃ – Sodium carbonate / Soda ash
Na₂CO₃·10H₂O – Washing soda
Na₂SO₄ – Sodium sulfate
Na₂SO₄·10H₂O – Glauber’s salt
NaNO₃ – Sodium nitrate
NaNO₂ – Sodium nitrite
Na₂S – Sodium sulfide
Na₂S₂O₃ – Sodium thiosulfate
Na₂S₂O₃·5H₂O – Hypo
Na₂Cr₂O₇ – Sodium dichromate
Na₂CrO₄ – Sodium chromate
NaClO – Sodium hypochlorite
NaClO₃ – Sodium chlorate
NaClO₄ – Sodium perchlorate
NaI – Sodium iodide
NaBr – Sodium bromide
NaF – Sodium fluoride
NaCN – Sodium cyanide
Na₃PO₄ – Sodium phosphate
Na₂SiO₃ – Sodium silicate
NaAlO₂ – Sodium aluminate
Na₂B₄O₇·10H₂O – Borax
Na₃AlF₆ – Cryolite

POTASSIUM SALTS

KCl – Potassium chloride / Sylvite
KNO₃ – Potassium nitrate / Saltpeter
KNO₂ – Potassium nitrite
K₂CO₃ – Potassium carbonate / Potash
KHCO₃ – Potassium bicarbonate
K₂SO₄ – Potassium sulfate
K₂SO₃ – Potassium sulfite
K₂S – Potassium sulfide
KMnO₄ – Potassium permanganate
K₂Cr₂O₇ – Potassium dichromate
K₂CrO₄ – Potassium chromate
KClO₃ – Potassium chlorate
KClO₄ – Potassium perchlorate
KClO₂ – Potassium chlorite
KI – Potassium iodide
KBr – Potassium bromide
KCN – Potassium cyanide
K₃PO₄ – Potassium phosphate
K₂SiO₃ – Potassium silicate
KAlO₂ – Potassium aluminate
KAl(SO₄)₂·12H₂O – Potash alum
KCr(SO₄)₂·12H₂O – Chrome alum
K₃[Fe(CN)₆] – Potassium ferricyanide
K₄[Fe(CN)₆] – Potassium ferrocyanide
KMgCl₃·6H₂O – Carnallite

CALCIUM COMPOUNDS

CaO – Quicklime / Calcium oxide
Ca(OH)₂ – Slaked lime / Calcium hydroxide
CaCO₃ – Calcium carbonate / Limestone / Marble / Chalk
CaSO₄ – Calcium sulfate / Anhydrite
CaSO₄·2H₂O – Gypsum
CaSO₄·½H₂O – Plaster of Paris
CaCl₂ – Calcium chloride
Ca(OCl)₂ – Bleaching powder
Ca(NO₃)₂ – Calcium nitrate
Ca₃(PO₄)₂ – Calcium phosphate
CaF₂ – Calcium fluoride / Fluorspar
CaMg(CO₃)₂ – Dolomite
Ca(AlO₂)₂ – Calcium aluminate

MAGNESIUM COMPOUNDS

MgO – Magnesium oxide
Mg(OH)₂ – Magnesium hydroxide
MgCO₃ – Magnesium carbonate / Magnesite
MgSO₄ – Magnesium sulfate
MgSO₄·7H₂O – Epsom salt / Epsomite
MgSO₄·H₂O – Kieserite
MgCl₂ – Magnesium chloride
Mg(NO₃)₂ – Magnesium nitrate
MgNH₄PO₄·6H₂O – Struvite
Mg₃Si₂O₅(OH)₄ – Asbestos
Mg₃Si₄O₁₀(OH)₂ – Talc
MgAl₂O₄ – Spinel

AMMONIUM COMPOUNDS

NH₃ – Ammonia
NH₄OH – Ammonium hydroxide
NH₄Cl – Ammonium chloride
(NH₄)₂CO₃ – Ammonium carbonate
NH₄HCO₃ – Ammonium bicarbonate
NH₄NO₃ – Ammonium nitrate
(NH₄)₃PO₄ – Ammonium phosphate
FeSO₄·(NH₄)₂SO₄·6H₂O – Mohr’s salt

HYDROCARBONS

CH₄ – Methane / Marsh gas
C₂H₆ – Ethane
C₃H₈ – Propane
C₄H₁₀ – Butane
C₂H₄ – Ethene / Ethylene
C₃H₆ – Propene
C₄H₈ – Butene
C₂H₂ – Acetylene / Ethyne
C₃H₄ – Propyne
C₄H₆ – Butyne
C₆H₆ – Benzene

ALCOHOLS

CH₃OH – Methanol / Wood spirit / Methyl alcohol
C₂H₅OH – Ethanol / Ethyl alcohol
C₃H₅(OH)₃ – Glycerol / Glycerine
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
HCHO – Formaldehyde / Methanal
CH₃CHO – Acetaldehyde / Ethanal
CH₃COCH₃ – Acetone / Propanone

AROMATIC COMPOUNDS

C₆H₅CH₃ – Toluene
C₆H₅OH – Phenol / Carbolic acid
C₆H₅NH₂ – Aniline
C₆H₅Cl – Chlorobenzene
C₆H₅NO₂ – Nitrobenzene
C₆H₅CHO – Benzaldehyde
C₆H₅COOH – Benzoic acid
C₆H₅NHCOCH₃ – Acetanilide

CARBOHYDRATES

C₆H₁₂O₆ – Glucose / Fructose
C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ – Sucrose
(C₆H₁₀O₅)ₙ – Starch / Cellulose

OTHER ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

CO(NH₂)₂ – Urea
CHCl₃ – Chloroform
CCl₄ – Carbon tetrachloride
CH₃COCl – Acetyl chloride
CH₃COOC₂H₅ – Ethyl acetate

GASES

O₂ – Oxygen
O₃ – Ozone
N₂ – Nitrogen
N₂O – Nitrous oxide / Laughing gas
NO – Nitric oxide
NO₂ – Nitrogen dioxide
N₂O₄ – Dinitrogen tetroxide
N₂O₅ – Dinitrogen pentoxide
CO₂ – Carbon dioxide / Dry ice
CO – Carbon monoxide
H₂ – Hydrogen
H₂S – Hydrogen sulfide / Sewer gas
SO₂ – Sulfur dioxide
SO₃ – Sulfur trioxide
NH₃ – Ammonia
Cl₂ – Chlorine
He – Helium
Ne – Neon
Ar – Argon
Kr – Krypton
Xe – Xenon
Rn – Radon

ALLOYS

Cu + Zn – Brass
Cu + Sn – Bronze
Cu + Zn + Ni – German silver
Fe + C – Steel
Fe + Cr + Ni – Stainless steel
Pb + Sn – Solder
Cu + Sn + Zn – Gunmetal
Al + Cu + Mn + Mg – Duralumin
Ni + Cr + Fe – Nichrome
Al + Mg – Magnalium

AMALGAMS

Zn + Hg – Zinc amalgam
Na + Hg – Sodium amalgam
K + Hg – Potassium amalgam
Cu + Hg – Copper amalgam
Al + Hg – Aluminium amalgam
Sn + Hg – Tin amalgam
Pb + Hg – Lead amalgam

MERCURY COMPOUNDS

Hg₂Cl₂ – Calomel / Mercury(I) chloride
HgCl₂ – Corrosive sublimate / Mercury(II) chloride
HgS – Vermilion / Cinnabar
HgO – Mercuric oxide
Hg₂O – Mercurous oxide
Hg₂SO₄ – Mercurous sulfate
HgSO₄ – Mercuric sulfate
Hg₂(NO₃)₂ – Mercurous nitrate
Hg(NO₃)₂ – Mercuric nitrate

LEAD COMPOUNDS

PbO – Litharge
PbO₂ – Lead peroxide
Pb₃O₄ – Red lead
PbCO₃ – White lead / Cerussite
PbS – Galena
PbSO₄ – Anglesite

SILVER COMPOUNDS

AgNO₃ – Silver nitrate / Lunar caustic
AgCl – Silver chloride / Horn silver
AgBr – Silver bromide
AgI – Silver iodide
Ag₂S – Argentite
Ag₂O – Silver oxide

IRON COMPOUNDS

Fe₂O₃ – Hematite / Ferric oxide
Fe₃O₄ – Magnetite
FeO – Ferrous oxide
FeS₂ – Iron pyrites
FeSO₄ – Ferrous sulfate
FeSO₄·7H₂O – Green vitriol
Fe₂(SO₄)₃ – Ferric sulfate
Fe₂O₃·xH₂O – Rust
FeCO₃ – Siderite
Fe₃(PO₄)₂·8H₂O – Vivianite

COPPER COMPOUNDS

CuSO₄ – Copper sulfate
CuSO₄·5H₂O – Blue vitriol
Cu₂O – Cuprite
CuO – Copper oxide
Cu₂S – Chalcocite
CuFeS₂ – Chalcopyrite
CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂ – Malachite
2CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂ – Azurite

ZINC COMPOUNDS

ZnSO₄ – Zinc sulfate
ZnSO₄·7H₂O – White vitriol
ZnO – Zincite / Zinc oxide
ZnCO₃ – Calamine / Smithsonite
ZnS – Sphalerite / Zinc sulfide
Zn(OH)₂ – Zinc hydroxide
Na₂ZnO₂ – Sodium zincate

ALUMINUM COMPOUNDS

Al₂O₃ – Alumina / Corundum
Al₂O₃·2H₂O – Bauxite
Al(OH)₃ – Aluminum hydroxide
AlCl₃ – Aluminum chloride
Al₂(SO₄)₃ – Aluminum sulfate
Na₃AlF₆ – Cryolite

SILICON COMPOUNDS

SiO₂ – Silica / Quartz / Sand
Na₂SiO₃ – Sodium silicate
KAlSi₃O₈ – Feldspar / Orthoclase
NaAlSi₃O₈ – Albite
CaAl₂Si₂O₈ – Anorthite
KAl₂(AlSi₃O₁₀)(OH)₂ – Mica
Al₂Si₂O₅(OH)₄ – Kaolinite
ZrSiO₄ – Zircon
Al₂SiO₄(OH)₂ – Topaz
Be₃Al₂Si₆O₁₈ – Emerald

OTHER COMPOUNDS

H₂O – Water
H₂O₂ – Hydrogen peroxide
D₂O – Heavy water
C – Diamond / Graphite
C₆₀ – Fullerene
SiCl₄ – Silicon tetrachloride
PCl₃ – Phosphorus trichloride
PCl₅ – Phosphorus pentachloride
PH₃ – Phosphine
As₂S₂ – Realgar
As₂S₃ – Orpiment
Sb₂S₃ – Stibnite
MnO₂ – Manganese dioxide / Pyrolusite
TiO₂ – Titanium dioxide / Rutile
FeTiO₃ – Ilmenite
FeCr₂O₄ – Chromite
BaSO₄ – Barium sulfate / Barite / Heavy spar
BaCO₃ – Barium carbonate / Witherite
SrCO₃ – Strontianite
SrSO₄ – Celestite

VITRIOLS

FeSO₄·7H₂O – Green vitriol
CuSO₄·5H₂O – Blue vitriol
ZnSO₄·7H₂O – White vitriol

COMMON NAMES REFERENCE

Quicklime – Calcium oxide – CaO
Slaked lime – Calcium hydroxide – Ca(OH)₂
Lime water – Calcium hydroxide – Ca(OH)₂
Baking soda – Sodium bicarbonate – NaHCO₃
Washing soda – Sodium carbonate decahydrate – Na₂CO₃·10H₂O
Caustic soda – Sodium hydroxide – NaOH
Caustic potash – Potassium hydroxide – KOH
Common salt – Sodium chloride – NaCl
Epsom salt – Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate – MgSO₄·7H₂O
Glauber’s salt – Sodium sulfate decahydrate – Na₂SO₄·10H₂O
Gypsum – Calcium sulfate dihydrate – CaSO₄·2H₂O
Plaster of Paris – Calcium sulfate hemihydrate – CaSO₄·½H₂O
Laughing gas – Nitrous oxide – N₂O
Dry ice – Solid carbon dioxide – CO₂
Marsh gas – Methane – CH₄
Wood spirit – Methanol – CH₃OH
Vinegar – Acetic acid – CH₃COOH
Oil of vitriol – Sulfuric acid – H₂SO₄
Aqua fortis – Nitric acid – HNO₃
Muriatic acid – Hydrochloric acid – HCl
King of chemicals – Sulfuric acid – H₂SO₄
Calomel – Mercury(I) chloride – Hg₂Cl₂
Corrosive sublimate – Mercury(II) chloride – HgCl₂
Lunar caustic – Silver nitrate – AgNO₃
Horn silver – Silver chloride – AgCl
Green vitriol – Ferrous sulfate heptahydrate – FeSO₄·7H₂O
Blue vitriol – Copper sulfate pentahydrate – CuSO₄·5H₂O
White vitriol – Zinc sulfate heptahydrate – ZnSO₄·7H₂O
Mohr’s salt – Ferrous ammonium sulfate – FeSO₄·(NH₄)₂SO₄·6H₂O
Potash alum – Potassium aluminum sulfate dodecahydrate – KAl(SO₄)₂·12H₂O
Soda ash – Sodium carbonate – Na₂CO₃

Stage-01

Q1. Deficiency of Vitamin D results in _____?
Answer: Rickets
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency affects calcium absorption, leading to weak and soft bones known as rickets in children.
Q2. An example of ionic compound is _____?
Answer: NaCl
Explanation: Sodium chloride is formed by the transfer of electrons between sodium and chlorine, making it an ionic compound.
Q3. Which gas can turn lime water milky?
Answer: CO₂
Explanation: Carbon dioxide reacts with lime water to form calcium carbonate, which turns the solution milky.
Q4. Which one of the following decreases along the period?
Answer: Atomic Radius
Explanation: Atomic radius decreases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge pulling electrons closer.
Q5. The branch of Chemistry which deals with hydrocarbons ______?
Answer: Organic chemistry
Explanation: Organic chemistry studies carbon-containing compounds, especially hydrocarbons.
Q6. Electronic configuration is distribution of _______?
Answer: Electron
Explanation: Electronic configuration describes how electrons are distributed in atomic orbitals.
Q7. The shielding effect across the period _______?
Answer: Same (constant)
Explanation: Shielding effect remains constant across a period because the number of shells does not change.
Q8. Which one of the following forms weak electrolyte solution with water?
Answer: CH₃COOH
Explanation: Acetic acid partially ionizes in water, so it behaves as a weak electrolyte.
Q9. Which compound is known as lunar caustic?
Answer: AgNO₃
Explanation: Silver nitrate is historically called lunar caustic due to its use in medicine.
Q10. Which one of the following act as oxidizing agent?
Answer: Cl
Explanation: Chlorine gains electrons during reactions, so it acts as an oxidizing agent.
Q11. Which one of the following is Metalloid?
Answer: Se
Explanation: Selenium shows properties intermediate between metals and non-metals.
Q12. Non-metals of ____ group are gases.
Answer: VIII-A
Explanation: Group VIII-A elements are noble gases and exist in gaseous state.
Q13. Which Halogen exists in liquid state?
Answer: Br₂
Explanation: Bromine is the only halogen that exists as a liquid at room temperature.
Q14. Which one of the following is strong acid?
Answer: HI
Explanation: Hydroiodic acid is a strong acid because it completely ionizes in water.
Q15. Chlorine can be displaced by _____?
Answer: F
Explanation: Fluorine is more reactive than chlorine and can displace it from compounds.
Q16. Which one of the following is Barium?
Answer: Ba
Explanation: Ba is the chemical symbol of barium.
Q17. Which one metal belongs to Alkaline earth metal?
Answer: Ba
Explanation: Barium belongs to Group II-A known as alkaline earth metals.
Q18. Which one of the following is correct statement?
Answer: Reduction occurs at cathode
Explanation: Reduction always takes place at the cathode in electrochemical reactions.
Q19. 1 g equivalent weight of Aluminum is equal to ____?
Answer: 9 g
Explanation: Equivalent weight is atomic weight divided by valency, i.e., 27 ÷ 3 = 9.
Q20. In dry cell ____ is used as cathode.
Answer: Carbon (graphite) rod
Explanation: In a dry cell, carbon (graphite) acts as cathode, not any metal.
Q21. Which one of the following is reducing agent?
Answer: Al
Explanation: Aluminum loses electrons easily and acts as a reducing agent.
Q22. Which one of the following is oxidizing agent?
Answer: Cl₂
Explanation: Chlorine accepts electrons during reactions, so it is an oxidizing agent.
Q23. Which one of the following is non-electrolyte?
Answer: Urea
Explanation: Urea does not ionize in water, so it does not conduct electricity.
Q24. Value of 1 Farady is equal to ______?
Answer: 96500 C
Explanation: One Faraday represents the charge carried by one mole of electrons.
Q25. Which one of the following is Alloy?
Answer: Steel
Explanation: Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon.
Q26. Alloy of Cu – Sn is called ______?
Answer: Bronze
Explanation: Bronze is made by mixing copper and tin.
Q27. What is the particle size in suspension?
Answer: Greater than 10 nm³
Explanation: Suspension particles are large and can settle down on standing.
Q28. A solution that contain solid solute into liquid solvent is called?
Answer: Solids in liquid
Explanation: When a solid dissolves in a liquid, the solution is called solid-in-liquid.
Q29. Butter is example of solution?
Answer: Liquid-solid
Explanation: Butter contains liquid droplets dispersed in a solid fat matrix.
Q30. When a saturated solution is diluted, it change into ____?
Answer: Unsaturated solution
Explanation: Adding solvent decreases concentration, making it unsaturated.
Q31. Which solution contain more water?
Answer: 0.25M
Explanation: Lower molarity means less solute and more solvent (water).
Q32. An example of true solution is ______?
Answer: Salt in water or suger in water
Explanation: Ink, starch, and toothpaste are typical true solutions; they are generally colloids. An example of a true solution is salt in water (or sugar in water)
Q33. 10% (w/w) sugar solution mean that 10 grams of solute dissolved in?
Answer: 90 g of water
Explanation: Total mass of solution is 100 g, so water is 90 g.
Q34. Molarity of a solution which is prepared by dissolving 40 g sodium chloride in 500 cm³ of solution is?
Answer: 1.37 M
Explanation: Molarity is calculated by dividing moles of solute by volume in liters.
Q35. 2 moles of sodium chloride (NaCl) is equal to?
Answer: 117 grams
Explanation: Molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g, so 2 moles equal 117 g.
Q36. Example of heterogeneous mixture is _______?
Answer: Sand and water
Explanation: Components are visibly separate in a heterogeneous mixture.
Q37. Solubility is usually expressed in grams of the solute dissolved in ________ gram of a solvent.
Answer: 100 grams
Explanation: Solubility is commonly expressed per 100 g of solvent.
Q38. If we dissolve sand into the water, then the mixture is said to be _______?
Answer: Suspension
Explanation: Sand particles do not dissolve and settle down on standing.
Q39. A saturated solution of KCl on heating becomes _______?
Answer: Unsaturated
Explanation: Solubility increases with temperature, making the solution unsaturated.
Q40. An alloy is the homogeneous mixture of ______?
Answer: Two solids
Explanation: Alloys are uniform mixtures of two or more solid metals.
Q41. The density of gases increases when its ______?
Answer: Pressure increased
Explanation: Increasing pressure compresses gas molecules, increasing density.
Q42. The liquid molecules leave the surface of liquid in evaporation process because ______?
Answer: Energy is high
Explanation: High-energy molecules escape from the liquid surface.
Q43. Which of the following are lightest form of matter?
Answer: Gases
Explanation: Gases have very low density compared to solids and liquids.
Q44. Which of the following have sharp melting point in solids?
Answer: Diamond
Explanation: Crystalline solids like diamond have sharp melting points.
Q45. The mobility of liquids is lesser than ______?
Answer: Gases
Explanation: Gas molecules move more freely than liquid molecules.
Q46. Which of the following does not affect the boiling point?
Answer: Initial temperature of liquid
Explanation: Boiling point depends on pressure and intermolecular forces, not initial temperature.
Q47. One atmospheric pressure is equal to _____?
Answer: 101325 Pascal
Explanation: Standard atmospheric pressure equals 101325 Pa.
Q48. The vapour pressure of a liquid increases with the _______?
Answer: Increase of temperature
Explanation: Higher temperature increases kinetic energy of molecules.
Q49. Which of the following gas diffuses fastest?
Answer: Hydrogen
Explanation: Lighter gases diffuse faster according to Graham’s law.
Q50. Which of the following diagram shows atoms are bonded with same electronegativity?
Answer: A —–:—– B
Explanation: Equal sharing of electrons indicates same electronegativity.

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Stage-02

Q51. The error caused by improper functioning of instrument is ______?
Answer: Systematic Error
Explanation: This type of error occurs due to faults or improper working of measuring instruments.
Q52. Which of the following can be separated by physical means?
Answer: Mixture
Explanation: Mixtures can be separated by physical methods like filtration or distillation.
Q53. Electron pairs which are not shared by atoms are called?
Answer: Lone pairs
Explanation: Lone pairs are valence electrons that do not participate in bonding.
Q54. De Broglie extend the wave particle duality to electron in ______?
Answer: 1923
Explanation: De Broglie proposed the wave nature of electrons in this year.
Q55. According to Mosely the chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their?
Answer: Atomic Number
Explanation: Modern periodic law states that properties depend on atomic number.
Q56. Ethyl alcohol was prepared by ______?
Answer: Al-Razi
Explanation: Al-Razi is credited with the preparation of ethyl alcohol.
Q57. Substances that react with both acids and bases are called?
Answer: Amphoteric substances
Explanation: Amphoteric substances show both acidic and basic behavior.
Q58. The Empirical formula of hydrogen peroxide is _______?
Answer: HO
Explanation: Empirical formula shows the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms.
Q59. The periodic table divided into S, P, d, and f block based on _______?
Answer: Electronic Configuration
Explanation: The blocks are based on the type of subshell being filled.
Q60. Name the material of screen which used in Rutherford atomic model?
Answer: Zinc sulphide
Explanation: Zinc sulphide screen was used to detect alpha particles.
Q61. If proton number is 19, electron configuration will be ______?
Answer: 2, 8, 8, 1
Explanation: Potassium has 19 electrons arranged in this order.
Q62. The Molecule consist of two atoms is _____?
Answer: Di atomic molecule
Explanation: A molecule made up of two atoms is called diatomic.
Q63. If nucleon number of potassium is 39, number of neutrons will be _______?
Answer: 20
Explanation: Neutrons = Mass number − Atomic number.
Q64. Which of the following is a homo atomic?
Answer: H2
Explanation: Homoatomic molecules contain atoms of the same element.
Q65. In an atom number of protons and neutrons are added to obtain ________?
Answer: Number of nucleons
Explanation: Protons and neutrons together are called nucleons.
Q66. Ionic crystals have ______?
Answer: High melting points
Explanation: Strong electrostatic forces give ionic crystals high melting points.
Q67. When two identical atoms share electron pairs and exert force on each other than bond form is ______?
Answer: Non-polar covalent bond
Explanation: Identical atoms share electrons equally, forming non-polar bonds.
Q68. 4th and 5th period in periodic table are known as?
Answer: Long period
Explanation: These periods contain a large number of elements.
Q69. Strength of intermolecular forces from ionic or covalent bond is _______?
Answer: Weaker
Explanation: Intermolecular forces are weaker than chemical bonds.
Q70. Interaction between highly electron deficient hydrogen and highly electronegative atom is called?
Answer: Hydrogen bond
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding occurs between hydrogen and electronegative atoms.
Q71. The isotope C-12 is present in abundance of _______?
Answer: 98.8%
Explanation: Carbon-12 is the most abundant isotope of carbon.
Q72. Two fluorine atoms share one electron each in their outermost shell to achieve electronic configuration of ______?
Answer: Ne
Explanation: Fluorine attains noble gas configuration by sharing electrons.
Q73. A formula that indicates actual number and type of atoms in a molecule is called?
Answer: Molecular formula
Explanation: Molecular formula shows the exact composition of a molecule.
Q74. The elements of VIIA group are known as ______?
Answer: Halogens
Explanation: Group VIIA elements are called halogens.
Q75. How many sub-shells in a L shell?
Answer: Two
Explanation: L shell consists of s and p subshells.
Q76. All Transition Elements are _____?
Answer: Metals
Explanation: Transition elements show metallic properties.
Q77. Noble gases are stable because they contain _____?
Answer: 8 electrons in valence shell
Explanation: A complete valence shell makes noble gases stable.
Q78. The general formula for alkanes is _____?
Answer: CnH2n+2
Explanation: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with this formula.
Q79. Which one of the following is most penetrating?
Answer: Neutron
Explanation: Neutrons have high penetrating power among listed radiations.
Q80. The ability to attract shared pair of electron is called ______?
Answer: Electronegativity
Explanation: Electronegativity measures attraction for shared electrons.
Q81. Synthetic resins are used on places where _______?
Answer: Adhesion is required
Explanation: Synthetic resins are commonly used as adhesives.
Q82. Which of the following gases has role an important in maintaining atmospheric temperature?
Answer: Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide traps heat and regulates Earth’s temperature.
Q83. In group electron affinity values decreases from top to bottom because ______?
Answer: Atomic size increases
Explanation: Larger atomic size reduces attraction for incoming electrons.
Q84. Atom which loses two electrons from its outer shell to form ion is called?
Answer: Magnesium
Explanation: Magnesium forms Mg²⁺ by losing two electrons.
Q85. Bond formed by mutual sharing of electron is ______?
Answer: Covalent bond
Explanation: Covalent bond forms when electrons are shared between atoms.
Q86. The molar mass of H2SO4 is ______?
Answer: 98 gm
Explanation: Sum of atomic masses gives molar mass of sulfuric acid.
Q87. The atomic mass of an element expressed in gram is ______?
Answer: Gram atomic mass
Explanation: Atomic mass expressed in grams is called gram atomic mass.
Q88. A non-metal atom form anion by ______?
Answer: Gain of electrons
Explanation: Non-metals gain electrons to form negative ions.
Q89. A piece of matter in pure form is termed as ______?
Answer: Substance
Explanation: A substance has uniform composition and properties.
Q90. Number of electrons lost by atoms of group IIIA equals ______?
Answer: 3
Explanation: Group IIIA elements lose three electrons.
Q91. Hemoglobin is soluble in ______?
Answer: Water
Explanation: Hemoglobin dissolves in water-based blood plasma.
Q92. Ozone layer is part of ______?
Answer: Stratosphere
Explanation: The ozone layer is present in the stratosphere.
Q93. Tendency of atoms to acquire eight electrons in their valence shell is ______?
Answer: Octet rule
Explanation: Atoms tend to complete their valence shell.
Q94. In 1869 Mandeleev put forward his periodic law about _____?
Answer: Atomic Mass
Explanation: Mendeleev arranged elements according to atomic mass.
Q95. Glucose is ______?
Answer: Carbohydrate
Explanation: Glucose is a simple carbohydrate.
Q96. When one atom forms cation by losing electron and other forms anion by accepting that electron then bond form between them is ______?
Answer: Ionic bond
Explanation: Ionic bond forms due to electrostatic attraction.
Q97. Oxygen belongs to group VIA so number of electrons in its valence shell are _____?
Answer: 6
Explanation: Group VIA elements have six valence electrons.
Q98. Which rays are used for sterilization of medical instruments?
Answer: γ-rays
Explanation: Gamma rays destroy microorganisms.
Q99. At room temperature most of ionic compounds are ______?
Answer: Crystalline solids
Explanation: Strong ionic forces keep ions in fixed positions.
Q100. Bond which involve 3 shared electron pairs is a ______?
Answer: Triple covalent bond
Explanation: Triple covalent bond involves sharing of three electron pairs.

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Stage-03

Q101. Ozone layer is part of ______?
Answer: Stratosphere
Explanation: The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere where it absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation.
Q102. Substances that react with both acids and bases are called?
Answer: Amphoteric substances
Explanation: Amphoteric substances can behave as both acids and bases depending on the reaction.
Q103. The error caused by improper functioning of instrument is ______?
Answer: Systematic Error
Explanation: Systematic error arises due to faults in instruments or experimental setup.
Q104. The general formula for alkanes is _____?
Answer: CnH2n+2
Explanation: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons that follow the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q105. Glucose is ______?
Answer: Carbohydrate
Explanation: Glucose belongs to carbohydrates and serves as an important energy source.
Q106. Lactose is ______?
Answer: Milk sugar
Explanation: Lactose is the natural sugar found in milk.
Q107. The functional group -COOH is used for ______?
Answer: Carboxylic acids
Explanation: The -COOH group is characteristic of carboxylic acids.
Q108. The branch of Chemistry which deals with hydrocarbons ______?
Answer: Organic chemistry
Explanation: Organic chemistry studies carbon compounds, especially hydrocarbons.
Q109. Second highest layer of Earth’s atmosphere is _______?
Answer: Thermosphere
Explanation: Thermosphere is the second highest atmospheric layer after the exosphere.
Q110. Water is a ______?
Answer: Polar solvent
Explanation: Water is a polar solvent due to unequal charge distribution.
Q111. The reaction in which an acid and a base react to form salt and water only is known as _______ reaction.
Answer: Neutralization
Explanation: Neutralization reaction produces salt and water from acid and base.
Q112. How much percentage of water on the earth is freshwater?
Answer: 2.5%
Explanation: Only about 2.5% of Earth’s water is freshwater.
Q113. Which of the following is the reason of global warming?
Answer: Rise in CO2 concentration
Explanation: Increased CO₂ traps heat in the atmosphere causing global warming.
Q114. Ozone is a gas found in the layer?
Answer: Stratosphere
Explanation: Ozone gas is mainly concentrated in the stratosphere.
Q115. If pH value is greater than 7, then solution is ______?
Answer: Basic
Explanation: A pH greater than 7 indicates a basic or alkaline solution.
Q116. Which one of the following is not a fraction of crude oil?
Answer: Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is not obtained from crude oil distillation.
Q117. Which of the following is used as jet fuel?
Answer: Kerosene oil
Explanation: Kerosene oil is commonly used as jet fuel.
Q118. The harvesting is most important step of ______?
Answer: Preparation of sugar
Explanation: Harvesting sugarcane is the first and most important step in sugar preparation.
Q119. The abrasives are ______?
Answer: Water insoluble minerals
Explanation: Abrasives are hard, water-insoluble minerals used for grinding.
Q120. The centrifuge machine used for separation of _______?
Answer: Mud
Explanation: Centrifuge separates suspended particles like mud from liquid.
Q121. The citric acid is used in preparation of cold drinks for _____?
Answer: Sour taste
Explanation: Citric acid provides sour taste in cold drinks.
Q122. The use of potassium hydroxide produced a ________?
Answer: Soft soap
Explanation: Potassium hydroxide is used to prepare soft soap.
Q123. The carboxylate end of the soap molecule that is attracted to water is called?
Answer: Hydrophilic end
Explanation: Hydrophilic end of soap dissolves in water.
Q124. Surfactants reduce the ______ of water.
Answer: Surface tension
Explanation: Surfactants reduce surface tension to improve cleaning.
Q125. Soap is the term for a salts of a ______?
Answer: Fatty acid
Explanation: Soap is a sodium or potassium salt of fatty acids.
Q126. It used to assess concentration or amount of given atomic, molecular or ionic chemical?
Answer: Spectroscopy
Explanation: Spectroscopy is used to analyze concentration and composition of substances.
Q127. The Gas is mobile phase in ______?
Answer: Gas chromatography
Explanation: In gas chromatography, gas acts as the mobile phase.
Q128. Spectroscopy is the interaction of light with ______?
Answer: Matter
Explanation: Spectroscopy studies how light interacts with matter.
Q129. An agreement between a measured value and the accepted true value?
Answer: Accuracy
Explanation: Accuracy shows how close a measurement is to the true value.
Q130. The physical methods used to measure physical properties is called?
Answer: Gravimetric analysis method
Explanation: Gravimetric analysis measures physical properties based on mass.

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Stage-04

Q131. Flame test of Copper Halide with bluish-green color identify the presence of ______?
Answer: Copper
Explanation: Bluish-green flame in flame test confirms the presence of copper.
Q132. Analysis deals with the identification of presence of functional groups in compounds is _______?
Answer: Organic qualitative analysis
Explanation: Organic qualitative analysis is used to detect functional groups in organic compounds.
Q133. The sample may be solid, liquid, gas or a _______ in qualitative analysis.
Answer: Mixture
Explanation: Qualitative analysis can be performed on pure substances or mixtures.
Q134. The Analytical Chemistry deals with instruments and methods to ______ identify and quantify the matter.
Answer: Separate
Explanation: Analytical chemistry uses separation techniques for identification and quantification.
Q135. Which of the following is helpful for removal of permanent hardness?
Answer: Na2CO3 (Washing Soda)
Explanation: Washing soda removes permanent hardness by precipitating calcium and magnesium salts.
Q136. The taste of water is ______?
Answer: Tasteless
Explanation: Pure water has no taste.
Q137. Which salts are excessively dissolved to make temporary hard water?
Answer: Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(HCO3)2
Explanation: Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium cause temporary hardness.
Q138. The permanent hardness of water is due to presence ______?
Answer: MgSO4 (Magnesium Sulphate)
Explanation: Sulphates and chlorides of magnesium cause permanent hardness.
Q139. Which type of bond is formed between H₂O molecules?
Answer: Hydrogen bond
Explanation: Water molecules are held together by hydrogen bonding.
Q140. How much percentage (%) of the Earth’s Surface is covered with water?
Answer: 70%
Explanation: About 70–71% of Earth’s surface is covered with water.
Q141. Which of the following water borne diseases is of viral origin?
Answer: Polio
Explanation: Polio is a viral disease transmitted through contaminated water.
Q142. The altitude on stratosphere is ______?
Answer: 50 to 55 km
Explanation: The stratosphere extends up to about 50–55 km above sea level.
Q143. Second most abundant constituent of dry air in terms of volume after nitrogen is?
Answer: Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen makes up about 21% of dry air.
Q144. Which is not part of greenhouse gases?
Answer: Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen does not trap heat and is not a greenhouse gas.
Q145. Layer of atmosphere which separates stratosphere and troposphere is known as?
Answer: Tropo-pause
Explanation: Tropopause is the boundary between troposphere and stratosphere.
Q146. Atmospheric pressure decreases with the _______?
Answer: Increase in altitude
Explanation: Atmospheric pressure decreases as altitude increases.
Q147. Aeroplanes fly in ______?
Answer: Stratosphere
Explanation: Aeroplanes usually fly in the lower stratosphere where air is stable.
Q148. Cotton contains ______ cellulose.
Answer: 95%
Explanation: Cotton is composed of about 95% cellulose.
Q149. Fats are solids at ______?
Answer: Ordinary room temperature
Explanation: Fats remain solid at normal room temperature.
Q150. What is true about a peptide?
Answer: It is a polyamide
Explanation: Peptides are polyamides formed by amino acids.
Q151. Which one of the following is a polysaccharide?
Answer: Starch
Explanation: Starch is a polysaccharide made of many glucose units.
Q152. Amino acids are building blocks of ______?
Answer: Protein
Explanation: Proteins are formed by the combination of amino acids.
Q153. The carbohydrates which contain the aldehyde group are called?
Answer: Aldoses
Explanation: Aldoses contain an aldehyde functional group.
Q154. Which molecule carries the genetic information in cells and is responsible for the transmission of traits from one generation to the next?
Answer: DNA
Explanation: DNA stores and transfers genetic information.
Q155. CH3-CH2- is _____ radical.
Answer: Ethyl
Explanation: CH3-CH2- represents the ethyl radical.
Q156. Alkenes ______?
Answer: Have carbon-carbon double bond
Explanation: Alkenes are hydrocarbons containing C=C double bonds.
Q157. Acetic acid is obtained from _____?
Answer: Vinegar
Explanation: Vinegar contains acetic acid.
Q158. Polyethene is ______?
Answer: Plastic
Explanation: Polyethene is a commonly used plastic polymer.
Q159. The prefix ‘hept’ stands for the ____ carbon atoms.
Answer: 7
Explanation: ‘Hept’ indicates seven carbon atoms.
Q160. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
Answer: CH3-CH2-CH3 (Propane)
Explanation: Propane contains only single bonds and is saturated.

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Stage-05

Q161. Which of the following is an alcohol?
Answer: CH3 – OH (Methanol)
Explanation: Methanol is a simple alcohol containing -OH group.
Q162. Salt among following is ______?
Answer: KCl (Potassium Chloride)
Explanation: KCl is an ionic compound and classified as a salt.
Q163. A substance that can donate a pair of electron to form coordinate covalent bond?
Answer: Lewis base
Explanation: Lewis base donates an electron pair to form a coordinate bond.
Q164. Which of the following is a Lewis base?
Answer: CN (Cyanide ion)
Explanation: Cyanide ion can donate an electron pair, making it a Lewis base.
Q165. NH3 can be a base according to ______?
Answer: Both b and c (Bronsted-Lowery theory and Lewis theory)
Explanation: Ammonia can accept a proton (Bronsted-Lowry) and donate electron pair (Lewis).
Q166. Which of the following is not an Arrhenius acid?
Answer: CO2
Explanation: CO2 does not have H⁺ to donate, so it is not an Arrhenius acid.
Q167. Preservatives are used to preserve _______?
Answer: Food
Explanation: Preservatives prevent spoilage and extend shelf life of food.
Q168. Corrosive effect on skin is caused by ______?
Answer: Both Acid & Base
Explanation: Strong acids and bases can cause corrosion on skin.
Q169. The value of Kc increases when ______?
Answer: [Product] is more
Explanation: Higher product concentration increases the equilibrium constant Kc.
Q170. Qc can be defined as _____?
Answer: Ratio of molar concentration of product and reactant raised to the power of coefficient (at any specific time)
Explanation: Qc indicates the reaction quotient at a given moment.
Q171. The system is stable in equilibrium when ______?
Answer: Qc = Kc
Explanation: At equilibrium, the reaction quotient equals the equilibrium constant.
Q172. For which system does the equilibrium constant, Kc has units of concentration?
Answer: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
Explanation: When number of moles of reactants and products differ, Kc has units.
Q173. When the magnitude of Kc is small, indicates ______?
Answer: Reaction mixture contain most of the reactant
Explanation: Small Kc means reaction favors reactants.
Q174. A reaction which is never goes to completion is known as reversible reaction. Reversible reaction is represented by ______?
Answer: Double arrow
Explanation: Double arrow indicates the reaction can proceed in both directions.
Q175. Which one of the following statements is false about dynamic equilibrium?
Answer: Equilibrium cannot be disturbed by any external stress
Explanation: This is false; equilibrium can be disturbed by changes in concentration, temperature, or pressure.
Q176. Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are called ______?
Answer: Isomers
Explanation: Isomers differ in arrangement of atoms but have same formula.
Q177. Glycerin is a ____?
Answer: Colorless liquid
Explanation: Glycerin is a clear, viscous, colorless liquid.
Q178. The valency of carbon is ______?
Answer: 4
Explanation: Carbon forms four covalent bonds to complete its octet.
Q179. Which chemical element has properties of a metal and non-metals?
Answer: Metalloid
Explanation: Metalloids show both metallic and non-metallic properties.
Q180. Silicon is also called?
Answer: Earth Maker
Explanation: Silicon is abundant in Earth’s crust and forms silicate minerals.
Q181. The rarest gas in air Is?
Answer: Xenon
Explanation: Xenon is present at roughly 18.2 ppm or 0.0018%), Xenon is far less common, with a concentration of only about 0.000009% or 0.08 ppm in the atmosphere, making it the rarest of the stable noble gases found in air
Q182. The gas common known as Laughing gas is?
Answer: Nitrous Oxide
Explanation: Nitrous oxide (N2O) produces a euphoric effect and is called laughing gas.
Q183. Sedimentary rocks are _______?
Answer: Porous
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks often contain pores due to deposited sediments.
Q184. In which type of rock is limestone found?
Answer: Sedimentary rock
Explanation: Limestone is formed by accumulation of sediments.
Q185. Butter and margarine are ______ in nature.
Answer: Colloid
Explanation: Butter and margarine are colloidal mixtures of fat and water.
Q186. Which is the oldest freezing method?
Answer: Brine freezing
Explanation: Brine freezing was historically the first freezing technique used.
Q187. The formula of Quartz is _____?
Answer: SiO2
Explanation: Quartz is composed of silicon and oxygen in SiO2 ratio.
Q188. Diamond is allotropic form of _______?
Answer: Carbon
Explanation: Diamond is one allotrope of carbon, with tetrahedral structure.
Q189. Brass gets discoloured in air because of the presence of which of the following gases in air?
Answer: Hydrogen Sulphide
Explanation: Hydrogen sulphide reacts with brass causing tarnishing.
Q190. When a gas turns into liquid, the process is called?
Answer: Condensation
Explanation: Condensation is the phase change from gas to liquid.

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Stage-06

Q191. Hot working of metals is carried out ______?
Answer: Above the recrystallisation temperature
Explanation: Hot working is done above the metal’s recrystallization temperature to prevent strain hardening.
Q192. Identify the refractory material that has high resistance to both acid and basic slags?
Answer: Chromite bricks
Explanation: Chromite bricks resist chemical attack from both acidic and basic slags.
Q193. Identify the hardest metal?
Answer: Tungsten
Explanation: Tungsten is the hardest metal; diamond is harder but is not a metal.
Q194. Environmental protection agencies advise against the use of chloro-fluoro carbon refrigerants since these react with _____?
Answer: Ozone layer
Explanation: CFCs deplete the ozone layer by breaking down ozone molecules.
Q195. A brazed joint can be satisfactorily made on an article made of _____?
Answer: Copper
Explanation: Copper allows proper bonding in brazing due to its thermal properties.
Q196. The binder in case of synthetic sand is _____?
Answer: Clay
Explanation: Clay or bentonite acts as a binder to hold sand particles together.
Q197. Which of the following allows electricity to pass in molten state?
Answer: Electrolytes
Explanation: Electrolytes conduct electricity when molten or dissolved in water.
Q198. Ozone layer is part of ______?
Answer: Stratosphere
Explanation: The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere.
Q199. Formula of ammonium:
Answer: NH₄⁺
Explanation: Ammonium ion carries a single positive charge.
Q200. Longest groups in periodic table
Answer: Group 3
Explanation: Group 3 is the longest group in the modern periodic table, containing 32 elements. 
Q201. Negatively charged ray:
Answer: Beta
Explanation: Beta particles are electrons or positrons emitted in radioactive decay.
Q202. Which of the following is the lightest metal?
Answer: Lithium
Explanation: Lithium has the lowest atomic mass among metals.
Q203. Who discovered Hydrogen?
Answer: Henry Cavendish
Explanation: Cavendish identified hydrogen as a distinct element in 1766.
Q204. Who is known for proposing the modern atomic theory?
Answer: John Dalton
Explanation: Dalton formulated the atomic theory in the early 19th century.
Q205. Which metal has the highest percentage in stainless steel?
Answer: Iron
Explanation: Stainless steel is primarily composed of iron with chromium and nickel.
Q206. Which gas is used in operations for anesthesia?
Answer: Nitrous Oxide
Explanation: Nitrous oxide is a common anesthetic gas in surgery.
Q207. Who invented dynamite?
Answer: Dr. Alfred B. Nobel
Explanation: Nobel invented dynamite in 1867 as a safer explosive.
Q208. The melting of ice is an example of ______?
Answer: Physical change
Explanation: Melting changes the state without altering chemical composition.
Q209. Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of dissolved salts of _______?
Answer: Ca(HCO₃)₂ (Calcium Bicarbonate)
Explanation: Bicarbonates of calcium cause temporary hardness in water.
Q210. Which of the following mineral is used in cement industry and plaster of Paris?
Answer: Gypsum
Explanation: Gypsum is added to cement and used to make plaster of Paris.
Q211. Tea is a _____?
Answer: Mixture
Explanation: Tea is a mixture of water, flavors, and dissolved compounds.
Q212. Brass is an alloy of ______?
Answer: Zinc and copper
Explanation: Brass is primarily composed of copper and zinc.
Q213. CNG stands for _______?
Answer: Compressed Natural Gas
Explanation: CNG is natural gas stored under high pressure for fuel use.
Q214. Salinity of the sea water is due to _____?
Answer: Sodium chloride
Explanation: Sodium chloride is the main contributor to sea water salinity.
Q215. Freezing point of water is ______?
Answer: All 
Explanation: 0°C, 32°F, and 273K are equivalent freezing points of water.
Q216. What is the percentage of nitrogen gas in air?
Answer: 78%
Explanation: Nitrogen makes up about 78% of Earth’s atmosphere.
Q217. Which method can be used to get drinking water from sea water?
Answer: Distillation
Explanation: Distillation separates salt and impurities to produce fresh water.
Q218. The instrument used to measure temperature is called the?
Answer: Thermometer
Explanation: Thermometers measure temperature using various scales (Celsius, Fahrenheit, Kelvin).
Q219. Which of the following is not a solid sublime material?
Answer: Both A and B (Glucose and Sodium Chloride)
Explanation: Glucose and Sodium Chloride do not undergo sublimation under normal conditions.
Q220. Which gas among the following is responsible for global warming due to the greenhouse effect?
Answer: Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Explanation: Carbon dioxide traps heat in the atmosphere, contributing to global warming.

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Stage-07

Q221. Which gas is responsible for global warming due to the greenhouse effect?
Answer: Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Explanation: CO2 traps heat in the atmosphere. While water vapor and methane also contribute, CO2 is the primary driver of human-induced global warming.
Q222. The process of separating a soluble solid from a solution is known as?
Answer: Crystallization
Explanation: Crystallization is used to separate solids that have dissolved in a liquid (like sugar in water) by evaporating the solvent until crystals form.
Q223. Which of the following is not a source of carbon dioxide emission?
Answer: Solar power
Explanation: Solar power is a clean energy source. Burning fuels, wood, and even human respiration release CO2, but solar panels generate electricity without emissions.
Q224. Corrosion occurs at the?
Answer: Anode
Explanation: In an electrochemical cell or during rusting, oxidation (loss of electrons) occurs at the anode, which is where the metal actually “corrodes” or eats away.
Q225. Isobars have the same ______?
Answer: Mass number
Explanation: Isobars are atoms of different elements that have the same mass number (total protons + neutrons) but different atomic numbers.
Q226. What type of bonding is present in sulphur dioxide (SO₂)?
Answer: Covalent
Explanation: Sulfur and Oxygen are both non-metals. They share electrons to form covalent bonds rather than transferring them as in ionic bonding.
Q227. The pH of water is ______?
Answer: 7
Explanation: Pure water is neutral, meaning it is neither acidic nor basic, placing it exactly at 7 on the pH scale.
Q228. Fission reaction is which type of reaction?
Answer: Physical (Nuclear)
Explanation: While often grouped with high-energy physics, a fission reaction is a “Nuclear” reaction. Since “Nuclear” isn’t an option, it is categorized under physical changes to the nucleus of an atom.
Q229. Substances that react with both acids and bases are called?
Answer: Amphoteric substances
Explanation: Water (H2O) and Aluminum Oxide (Al2O3) are classic examples of amphoteric substances that can act as either an acid or a base.
Q230. The process which converts carbon dioxide into glucose is known as _____?
Answer: Photosynthesis
Explanation: Plants use sunlight to turn CO2 and water into glucose (food) and oxygen.
Q231. Among the following, which substance is not a compound?
Answer: Mg (Magnesium)
Explanation: Mg is an element. H2O, CO2, and NaCl are all compounds because they consist of two or more different elements chemically bonded.
Q232. Which statement is incorrect about metals?
Answer: Metals are dull and soft
Explanation: This describes non-metals. Most metals are shiny (lustrous), hard, and good conductors of heat/electricity.
Q233. The lightest gas used for filling party and advertisement balloons is ______?
Answer: Hydrogen
Explanation: Hydrogen is the lightest element, but Helium is more commonly used today because Hydrogen is highly flammable (dangerous). Based on “lightest,” the answer is Hydrogen.
Q234. Which statement is incorrect about particles in liquids?
Answer: Particles have large empty spaces between them
Explanation: This is incorrect for liquids. Large empty spaces are a characteristic of gases. Liquid particles are relatively close together.
Q235. Which statement is correct about particles in gases?
Answer: All (Widely spread, no regular pattern, large empty spaces)
Explanation: Gas particles move randomly at high speeds and are far apart compared to solids and liquids.
Q236. The freezing point of water on a centigrade scale is?
Answer: 0°C
Explanation: On the Celsius scale, water freezes at 0°C and boils at 100°C.
Q237. Air is an example of a/an ______?
Answer: Mixture
Explanation: Air is a homogeneous mixture of various gases like Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), and Argon, which are not chemically bonded together.
Q238. Matter changes state from solid to liquid and liquid to gas when it?
Answer: Gains energy
Explanation: Adding heat (energy) causes particles to move faster and break the bonds holding them in a solid or liquid state.
Q239. Energy flowing from high temperature to low temperature is known as?
Answer: Heat
Explanation: Heat always moves from a warmer object to a cooler one until thermal equilibrium is reached.
Q240. Which material is insoluble in water?
Answer: Sand
Explanation: Sand does not dissolve in water; it forms a suspension and eventually settles at the bottom.
Q241. The most common element found on Earth is _____?
Answer: Oxygen
Explanation: By mass, Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust (approx. 46.6%) and a major component of the oceans and atmosphere.
Q242. When water vapors are cooled and convert into liquid, the process is?
Answer: Condensation
Explanation: Condensation is the opposite of evaporation.
Q243. The atomic number was discovered by _______?
Answer: Henry Moseley
Explanation: In 1913, Moseley used X-rays to determine that the atomic number (number of protons) is the fundamental property of an element.
Q244. Which type of liquid is used in laboratory thermometers?
Answer: Mercury
Explanation: Mercury is used because it stays liquid over a wide temperature range and expands linearly with heat. (Alcohol is also used, but Mercury is the standard for high-precision lab work).
Q245. Which statement is incorrect about particles in solids?
Answer: Particles are in loose clusters
Explanation: In solids, particles are tightly packed in a fixed, regular pattern. “Loose clusters” describes liquids.
Q246. A process of separating insoluble solids from a mixture is called?
Answer: Filtration
Explanation: Filtration uses a filter (like paper or sand) to catch solid particles while letting the liquid pass through.
Q247. Which isotope is used for diagnosis and treatment of Wilson’s disease?
Answer: Copper – 64
Explanation: Wilson’s disease involves copper accumulation in the body; Copper-64 is used in medical imaging to study copper metabolism.
Q248. Which one of the following is not a sign of chemical change?
Answer: No change in composition
Explanation: A chemical change always involves a change in composition to form new substances. If the composition stays the same, it is a physical change (like melting ice).
Q249. Carbon dating is used for the estimation of the age of ____?
Answer: Fossils
Explanation: Carbon-14 dating is used to determine the age of organic materials (things that were once alive) up to about 50,000 years old.
Q250. Which isotope is used for radiotherapy to stop the growth of cancer cells?
Answer: Cobalt – 60
Explanation: Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope that emits gamma rays, which are used to kill cancer cells in medical therapy.

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Stage-08

Q251. Which one among the following is a hydrocarbon compound?
Answer: Candle wax
Explanation: Candle wax (paraffin) is a mixture of long-chain hydrocarbons. Glycerol and Aspirin contain oxygen, and Polyurethane contains nitrogen and oxygen.
Q252. Substances added to soil to make up any deficiency of nutrients are called?
Answer: Fertilizers
Explanation: Fertilizers provide essential elements like Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K) to enhance plant growth.
Q253. First Law of thermodynamics gives a relationship between?
Answer: Heat, work, and energy
Explanation: The law states ΔU=Q−W, where ΔU is change in internal energy, Q is heat added, and W is work done.
Q254. If the horizontal range of a projectile becomes half of its maximum range, the probable angle of projection is?
Answer: 15°
Explanation: Maximum range occurs at 45°. The range formula is R∝sin(2θ). Since sin(2×45°)=1, we need sin(2θ)=0.5. Thus 2θ=30°, so θ=15°.
Q255. The unit of temperature coefficient of resistivity is?
Answer: 1/°C
Explanation: It is defined as the fractional change in resistance per degree change in temperature.
Q256. If % yield and actual yield are 80 and 20g respectively, what will be theoretical yield?
Answer: 25g
Explanation: Theoretical Yield=(Actual Yield/Percentage Yield)×100. So, (20/80)×100=25g.
Q257. Number of unpaired electrons present in the ground state of Fe3+ are?
Answer: Five
Explanation: Fe (26) is [Ar]3d6 4s2. Fe3+ loses three electrons to become [Ar]3d5. In the 3d subshell, all 5 electrons remain unpaired according to Hund’s Rule.
Q258. Which situation demonstrates a key characteristic of a Redox reaction?
Answer: Hydrogen gas reacting with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas
Explanation: In H2 + Cl2 →2HCl, Hydrogen is oxidized (0 to +1) and Chlorine is reduced (0 to -1).
Q259. Which of the following is not a characteristic of benzene?
Answer: High reactivity
Explanation: Due to resonance stabilization (the delocalized pi-electron cloud), benzene is remarkably stable and prefers substitution reactions over addition reactions.
Q260. Which of the following is not a characteristic of benzene?
Answer: High reactivity
Explanation: (Duplicate of Q259, reinforcing that Benzene is stable, not highly reactive).
Q261. What is the general requirement for free radical substitution of ethane and halogen?
Answer: Heat and UV light
Explanation: UV light provides the energy needed to break the halogen-halogen bond to create the initial free radicals.
Q262. What happens when H+ is added to ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride buffer?
Answer: Reaction will move reverse
Explanation: According to Le Chatelier’s principle, the added H+ reacts with OH− to form water, shifting the equilibrium to maintain the pH.
Q263. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is the type of?
Answer: Thermoplastic polymer
Explanation: Thermoplastics can be melted and reshaped repeatedly when heated.
Q264. Shape of orbital is determined by quantum number?
Answer: l (Azimuthal Quantum Number)
Explanation: ‘n’ determines size/energy, ‘l’ determines shape (s,p,d,f), ‘m’ determines orientation, and ‘s’ determines spin.
Q265. Final equation for the representation of rate of reaction in terms of concentration is?
Answer: Rate law
Explanation: The Rate Law expresses the relationship of the reaction rate to the molar concentrations of the reactants.
Q266. Fischer ESTERIFICATION is which type of reaction?
Answer: Condensation
Explanation: It involves the reaction of a carboxylic acid with an alcohol, eliminating a water molecule (condensation) to form an ester.
Q267. Terminal alkynes show acidic character due to?
Answer: Terminal carbon atoms are sp hybridized
Explanation: ‘sp’ hybridized carbons have high s-character (50%), making them more electronegative and able to release the H+ ion more easily.
Q268. Which one of the following has higher vapour pressure?
Answer: Isopentane
Explanation: Vapour pressure is higher in molecules with weaker intermolecular forces. Isopentane (branched) has a lower boiling point and higher vapour pressure than n-hexane.
Q269. In the oxidation of acetaldehyde to acetic acid, the oxidizing agent used is?
Answer: K2Cr2O7 (Potassium Dichromate)
Explanation: Acidified potassium dichromate is a strong oxidizing agent commonly used to oxidize aldehydes to carboxylic acids.
Q270. Molecules having one lone pair and three bond pairs have geometrical shape?
Answer: Trigonal pyramidal
Explanation: An example is Ammonia (NH3). The lone pair repels the bond pairs, pushing them into a pyramid shape.
Q271. Majority of reactions taking place at ordinary temperatures with −ΔH are?
Answer: Exothermic
Explanation: A negative change in enthalpy (−ΔH) indicates that heat is released to the surroundings.
Q272. Energy needed to weaken existing bonds to an extent that they can break is?
Answer: Activation energy
Explanation: This is the minimum “energy barrier” that reactants must climb to reach the transition state.
Q273. An enzyme used to decompose lipids into fatty acids is?
Answer: Lipase
Explanation: Lipase breaks down fats (lipids); Amylase breaks down starch; Protease breaks down proteins.
Q274. In propene, the pi-bond is formed by sideway overlap of?
Answer: p-orbitals
Explanation: Sigma bonds are formed by head-on overlap, while pi bonds are always formed by the lateral (sideway) overlap of unhybridized p-orbitals.
Q275. Why does phenol react with aqueous NaOH, but alcohols do not?
Answer: Phenol is weakly acidic due to resonance stabilization of the phenoxide ion
Explanation: Once phenol loses a proton, the resulting negative charge is spread across the benzene ring, making it much more stable than an alkoxide ion from alcohol.
Q276. Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to form salts, which on heating produce?
Answer: Amide
Explanation: For example, Ammonium acetate (CH3COONH4) on heating loses water to become Acetamide (CH3CONH2).
Q277. The element with the smallest value of ionization energy is?
Answer: Ba (Barium)
Explanation: Ionization energy decreases as you go down a group. Barium is further down the periodic table than Al, O, or U (in most LDC context comparisons), making its outer electron easier to remove.
Q278. In a unit cell of a crystal lattice, the angle β is between faces?
Answer: c and a
Explanation: In crystallography: α is between b and c; β is between a and c; γ is between a and b.
Q279. Chlorination of benzene in the presence of FeCl3 involves?
Answer: Electrophilic Substitution
Explanation: An electrophile (Cl+) attacks the electron-rich benzene ring and replaces a hydrogen atom.
Q280. Methanol is produced by reduction of?
Answer: Formaldehyde
Explanation: Reducing an aldehyde gives a primary alcohol. Formaldehyde (HCHO) reduces to Methanol (CH3OH).

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Q281. “A chemical compound always contains the same elements combined together in the same proportion” is the statement of ____?
Answer: Law of Constant Composition
Explanation: Also known as the Law of Definite Proportions, it states that a given chemical compound always contains its component elements in fixed ratio by mass.
Q282. The atoms of same element which have the same atomic number but different mass numbers are known as?
Answer: Isotopes
Explanation: Isotopes (like Carbon-12 and Carbon-14) have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.
Q283. The simplest kind of matter which cannot be further split up by chemical reactions is called?
Answer: Element
Explanation: An element is a pure substance consisting of only one type of atom. Compounds can be split into elements, but elements cannot be split further by chemical means.
Q284. A solution which can dissolve more solute at given temperature is called?
Answer: Unsaturated Solution
Explanation: If you can still add sugar to a tea and it dissolves, the tea is “unsaturated.” Once it stops dissolving, it becomes “saturated.”
Q285. What type of acid is used in car batteries?
Answer: Sulphuric acid
Explanation: Lead-acid batteries use a solution of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) as the electrolyte.
Q286. Magnesium keep on burning in _____?
Answer: N2 as well as CO2
Explanation: Magnesium is so reactive that it can strip oxygen from CO2 and react with Nitrogen to form Magnesium Nitride, allowing it to continue burning even when oxygen is absent.
Q287. The metal commonly used in storage batteries ____?
Answer: Lead
Explanation: (اردو وضاحت: سٹوریج بیٹریوں میں عام طور پر ‘لیڈ’ استعمال ہوتا ہے کیونکہ یہ ری چارج ایبل بیٹریوں کے لیے موزوں ہے)۔
Q288. The material used for bleaching paper pulp is ____?
Answer: Sodium hypochlorite
Explanation: Sodium hypochlorite (and often Chlorine or Hydrogen Peroxide) is used to remove the “lignin” from wood pulp to make paper white.
Q289. Which carbonyl carbon is more electrophilic?
Answer: HCHO (Formaldehyde)
Explanation: In Formaldehyde, there are no alkyl groups to donate electrons to the carbonyl carbon, leaving it very positive (electrophilic) and hungry for a nucleophile.
Q290. K is called the specific rate constant because it is ______?
Answer: Rate per unit concentration
Explanation: By definition, the specific rate constant is the rate of reaction when the concentration of all reactants is exactly 1 mol/dm3.
Q291. Formic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of an acid catalyst and produces _____?
Answer: Ester
Explanation: The reaction between any carboxylic acid and an alcohol produces an Ester and water (Esterification).
Q292. Which one is not a type of stereoisomerism?
Answer: Metamerism
Explanation: Metamerism is a type of Structural isomerism. Stereoisomerism includes Geometrical (cis/trans) and Optical isomers.
Q293. Which of the following is NOT a state function?
Answer: Work
Explanation: State functions (like Pressure and Enthalpy) depend only on the current state, not the path taken. Work and Heat are Path functions.
Q294. If ionization energy of an element is greater then _____?
Answer: Less is its metallic character
Explanation: High ionization energy means it is very hard to remove an electron. Since metals are characterized by losing electrons easily, high IE means low metallic character.
Q295. The ionic compound with the highest lattice energy is _____?
Answer: LiF
Explanation: Lattice energy is highest when ions are small and highly charged. Lithium (Li+) and Fluoride (F−) are the smallest ions in this list.
Q296. Which is not true about benzene?
Answer: 6 sites for monosubstitution
Explanation: While benzene has six hydrogen atoms that can be replaced, all six positions in a benzene ring are chemically equivalent due to its symmetrical hexagonal structure. Therefore, monosubstitution of benzene yields only one distinct product, not six different ones.
Q297. At start of reaction _____?
Answer: Instantaneous rate is high
Explanation: At the beginning of a chemical reaction, the concentrations of the reactants are at their maximum. According to collision theory and the law of mass action, the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of reactants.
Q298. When one mole of a substance is decomposed as compared to evaporation then decomposition has _____?
Answer: Low energy
Explanation: If a substance decomposes before it evaporates, it means the energy required to break its internal chemical bonds is lower than the energy required to overcome its intermolecular forces.
Q299. Which one is an addition polymer?
Answer: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
Explanation: PVC is formed by the repeated addition of vinyl chloride monomers. Polyester is a condensation polymer.
Q300. Ratio of sigma bonds and pi bonds present in benzene are _____?
Answer: 4:1
Explanation: Benzene (C6H6) has 12 sigma bonds (6 C-C and 6 C-H) and 3 pi bonds. Ratio = 12:3, which simplifies to 4:1.
Q301. Which adhesive is used to bond broken pieces of jewelry?
Answer: Epoxy resin
Explanation: Epoxy is preferred for jewelry because it creates a very strong, permanent, and clear bond that can withstand heat and chemicals.
Q302. Which atom has at least single electron in dumbbell shape orbital?
Answer: B (Boron)
Explanation: Boron (Atomic No. 5) has the configuration 1s2 2s2 2p1. The p-orbital is dumbbell-shaped. Hydrogen and Helium only have s (spherical) orbitals.
Q303. The formation of activated complex in a reaction is _____?
Answer: Endothermic process
Explanation: Forming the “transition state” always requires an input of energy (Activation Energy), making that specific step endothermic.
Q304. Which of the following is expected to be the most paramagnetic?
Answer: ⁶C (Carbon)
Explanation: Carbon has 2 unpaired electrons in its 2p subshell. Be and Li have 0 and 1 respectively. More unpaired electrons = more paramagnetic.
Q305. Which compound is most susceptible to nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon?
Answer: CH3COCl (Acetyl Chloride)
Explanation: Acid chlorides are the most reactive carbonyl derivatives because the Chlorine atom is a very good “leaving group” and pulls electrons away from the carbon.
Q306. IUPAC name of CH≡CCl is _____?
Answer: Chloroethyne
Explanation: It is an alkyne (triple bond) with two carbons (eth-) and a chlorine substituent.
Q307. Condition to bring about: Toluene → p-chloro toluene?
Answer: Cl₂ in the presence of AlCl₃
Explanation: This is Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution. The AlCl₃ acts as a catalyst to create the Cl+ electrophile.
Q308. Phenol differs from ethanol because it ______?
Answer: Is more acidic because of resonance stabilized conjugate base
Explanation: When phenol loses H+, the resulting phenoxide ion is stabilized by the benzene ring, making phenol 10^6 times more acidic than ethanol.
Q309. Which of the following is least volatile?
Answer: Glycerol
Explanation: Glycerol has three -OH groups, allowing for very strong hydrogen bonding. This results in a high boiling point and very low volatility (doesn’t evaporate easily).
Q310. Which radiation has highest penetrating power?
Answer: Gamma rays
Explanation: Gamma rays are high-energy photons with no mass or charge, allowing them to pass through several inches of lead or several feet of concrete.

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Q311. Which of the following is a neutral particle?
Answer: Neutron
Explanation: Neutrons have no electric charge. Protons are positive, and electrons are negative.
Q312. Charge of a proton is?
Answer: Positive
Explanation: Protons carry a charge of +1.6 × 10^-19 Coulombs.
Q313. Who discovered the periodic table?
Answer: Dmitri Mendeleev
Explanation: In 1869, Mendeleev arranged elements by atomic mass and predicted the properties of elements that hadn’t been discovered yet.
Q314. Which of the following liquids is used in the clinical thermometer?
Answer: Mercury
Explanation: Mercury is preferred because it does not stick to the glass and expands evenly with heat.
Q315. What is another name for Baking Soda?
Answer: Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation: Its chemical formula is NaHCO3. Sodium chloride is common salt.
Q316. Which salt is used as a laxative in medicine to treat constipation?
Answer: Epsom salt (Magnesium sulfate)
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate increases water in the intestines, which helps trigger bowel movements.
Q317. Function of salt in a battery is _____?
Answer: To act as an electrolyte
Explanation: The “salt bridge” or electrolyte allows ions to flow between the two electrodes, completing the circuit.
Q318. The most abundant component in Earth’s atmosphere (or Air) is?
Answer: Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen makes up approximately 78% of the air, while Oxygen is about 21%.
Q319. Ammonia Solvay process is used for the manufacture of _____?
Answer: Washing soda
Explanation: The Solvay process is the major industrial method for producing Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3), also known as washing soda.
Q320. Do cars on a highway (in a traffic jam) behave like _____?
Answer: The molecules of a compressed fluid
Explanation: When traffic is restricted to one lane, cars “compress” together with reduced space between them, similar to molecules in a gas or fluid under pressure.
Q321. P2O5 is a hygroscopic powder which sublimes at _______?
Answer: 360 degree Celsius
Explanation: Phosphorus pentoxide (P2O5) is a powerful dehydrating agent that turns directly from a solid to a gas (sublimes) at 360°C.
Q322. The shape of SnCl2 is _____?
Answer: Angular
Explanation: Tin(II) chloride has a lone pair of electrons on the Sn atom, which pushes the two Cl atoms down into a V-shape or “Bent/Angular” geometry.
Q323. Which of the following has least electron affinity value?
Answer: Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen has a half-filled p-subshell (2p3), which is very stable. It does not want to accept an extra electron, resulting in a very low (almost zero) electron affinity.
Q324. SN2 can be best carried out with _____?
Answer: Primary alkyl halide
Explanation: In SN2 reactions, the nucleophile attacks from the back. Primary halides have the least “steric hindrance” (least crowding), making the attack easier.
Q325. The bonds present in N2O5 are _____?
Answer: Covalent and coordinate
Explanation: In its gaseous state, N2O5 consists of nitrogen atoms sharing electrons (covalent) and donating electron pairs to oxygen (coordinate).
Q326. Which instrument is used to measure the optical activity of a compound?
Answer: Polarimeter
Explanation: A polarimeter measures the angle by which a substance rotates plane-polarized light.
Q327. Which one is not related to evaporation?
Answer: Exothermic
Explanation: Evaporation is an Endothermic process because it absorbs heat from the surroundings (which is why it causes cooling).
Q328. Which transition metal in its ground state has an unpaired electron in an s-orbital?
Answer: Cr (Chromium)
Explanation: Chromium has an exceptional configuration: [Ar] 3d5 4s1. The 4s orbital has one unpaired electron.
Q329. Which of the following is a reducing agent?
Answer: C2H5CHO (Acetaldehyde)
Explanation: Aldehydes are strong reducing agents; they can be oxidized to carboxylic acids while reducing other substances (like Tollens’ or Fehling’s reagents).
Q330. Which of the following is not a locating agent?
Answer: CS2 (Carbon Disulfide)
Explanation: Locating agents (like Ninhydrin) are used in chromatography to see invisible spots. CS2 is a solvent, not a locating agent.
Q331. Which of the following has an inert gas configuration?
Answer: Ti4+
Explanation: Titanium (22) has the configuration [Ar] 3d2 4s2. If it loses 4 electrons (Ti4+), it is left with the [Ar] (Argon) configuration, which is an inert gas.
Q332. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
Answer: Fe2+
Explanation: Fe2+ (Atomic No. 26) has a 3d6 configuration. According to Hund’s rule, this results in 4 unpaired electrons.
Q333. X-rays have been discovered by ______?
Answer: Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
Explanation: He discovered them in 1895 and received the first Nobel Prize in Physics for this achievement.
Q334. Which of the following has maximum hydration power?
Answer:  Mg²⁺
Explanation: Hydration power depends on charge density.  Mg²⁺ is smaller and has a higher charge than Na+, and is smaller than Ca²⁺, giving it the highest hydration power.
Q335. Which gas is not present in coke (as a primary constituent)?
Answer: Oxygen
Explanation: Coke is produced by heating coal in the absence of air (oxygen). It is primarily Carbon.
Q336. Which of the following gas is more ideal at STP?
Answer: H₂
Explanation: Small, non-polar molecules like Hydrogen ( H₂) have the weakest intermolecular forces, making them behave more like an “Ideal Gas” than  H₂S or NH₃.
Q337. Which of the following is a man-made substance?
Answer: All (Plastic, Steel, Synthetic Rubber)
Explanation: While some rubber is natural, “Plastic” and “Steel” are purely industrial/man-made materials.
Q338. Which poisonous gas is produced when coal is burnt without enough air supply?
Answer: Carbon monoxide
Explanation: Incomplete combustion (lack of O2) produces CO, which is highly toxic.
Q339. Which of the following does not have variable valency?
Answer: Zinc
Explanation: Zinc almost always shows a fixed valency of +2. Cobalt and Iron are transition metals that show multiple oxidation states (variable valency).
Q340. Which of the following has a coordinate bond?
Answer: NH₃BF₃
Explanation: Nitrogen in NH₃ donates its lone pair of electrons to the Boron in BF₃, forming a coordinate (dative) covalent bond.

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