Biology One-Liner PDF

Stage-01

Q1. The cause of malaria is _____?
Answer: Plasmodium
Explanation: Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium, which is transmitted through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Q2. Enzymes are ______?
Answer: Protein in nature
Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts and are protein molecules in nature.
Q3. All are postulates of cell theory except?
Answer: Cell does not contain the hereditary material
Explanation: According to cell theory, cells do contain hereditary material; therefore this statement is incorrect.
Q4. A group of similar cells combine together to form _____?
Answer: Tissue
Explanation: Similar cells performing the same function combine to form a tissue.
Q5. Which processes involve mitosis?
Answer: Growth, repair and asexual reproduction
Explanation: Mitosis is responsible for growth, tissue repair, and asexual reproduction in organisms.
Q6. Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ______?
Answer: Increase the surface area for absorption
Explanation: Root hairs increase the surface area of roots, enhancing absorption of water and minerals.
Q7. Which of these are involved in the clotting of blood?
Answer: Platelets
Explanation: Platelets play a key role in blood clotting to prevent excessive bleeding.
Q8. Bio elements considered as vital for life are ______ members or in numbers.
Answer: 16
Explanation: Sixteen bioelements are considered essential for life processes.
Q9. Volvox is a polyphyletic genus of _______?
Answer: Green algae
Explanation: Volvox belongs to green algae and shows colonial organization.
Q10. Scientific name of frog is ____?
Answer: Rana tigrina
Explanation: Rana tigrina is the scientific name commonly used for frog in textbooks.
Q11. In human heart blood returning from lungs first drains into the _____?
Answer: Left atrium
Explanation: Oxygenated blood from lungs enters the heart through the left atrium.
Q12. Study of remote past organic life, with the help of fossils?
Answer: Paleontology
Explanation: Paleontology deals with the study of ancient life forms through fossils.
Q13. Inherited condition that affects the blood hemoglobin called _____?
Answer: Thalassemia
Explanation: Thalassemia is an inherited genetic disorder that affects the production and structure of hemoglobin in the blood.
Q14. Colourless, irregular in shape, nucleated and larger sized cell than R.B.Cs called?
Answer: Leucocytes
Explanation: Leucocytes are white blood cells that are nucleated and larger than red blood cells.
Q15. Dead cells of xylem vessels arranged vertically have empty space inside called?
Answer: Lumen
Explanation: Lumen is the hollow cavity inside xylem vessels that allows water transport.
Q16. Relaxation of heart muscles and allowing the chambers to fill with blood called?
Answer: Diastole
Explanation: Diastole is the phase when heart muscles relax and chambers fill with blood.
Q17.Pumping of blood by the rhythmic pulsation of heart throughout the body is called?
Answer: Heart beat
Explanation: Heart beat refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the heart that pumps blood throughout the body.
Q18. A type of cancer that affects the blood, bone marrow and lymphatic system called?
Answer: Leukemia
Explanation: Leukemia is a cancer of blood-forming tissues including bone marrow.
Q19. Opening and closing of stomata is also regulated by ___?
Answer: Guard cells
Explanation: Guard cells control the opening and closing of stomata.
Q20. Root hair is long, thin and tubular structure, it increases surface area which increases the _____?
Answer: Rate of absorption of water
Explanation: Increased surface area enhances the rate of water absorption.
Q21. In flowering plants xylem is made up of ____ types of tissues.
Answer: 4
Explanation: Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem fibers, and xylem parenchyma.
Q22. Loss of internal water of plant in the form of vapours from aerial parts of plants is called?
Answer: Transpiration
Explanation: Transpiration is the loss of water vapor from aerial parts of plants.
Q23. Each gram fat supplies the body with about ______ calories.
Answer: 9
Explanation: One gram of fat provides approximately 9 calories of energy.
Q24. Carbohydrates which digested quickly are called?
Answer: Starch
Explanation: Starch is a carbohydrate that is rapidly digested into glucose.
Q25. High solubility of fertilizers also degrades ecosystem through _____?
Answer: Eutrophication
Explanation: Excess fertilizers cause eutrophication by increasing nutrient levels in water bodies.
Q26. Fertilizers are substances containing chemical elements such as manure or mixture of ______?
Answer: Nitrates
Explanation: Fertilizers commonly contain nitrates which provide nitrogen to plants.
Q27. Nutrients that are needed in the highest concentration called?
Answer: Macronutrients
Explanation: Macronutrients are required in large amounts for plant growth.
Q28. Living organisms which derive their food from dead and decaying organic materials called?
Answer: Saprotrophs
Explanation: Saprotrophs feed on dead and decaying organic matter.
Q29. Liquid secreted by the pancreas, which contains a variety of _____?
Answer: Enzymes
Explanation: Pancreatic juice contains digestive enzymes.
Q30. Wave of rhythmic movements of muscle contraction and relaxation called?
Answer: Peristalsis
Explanation: Peristalsis moves food through the digestive tract.
Q31. Iron deficiency is associated with decreased cognitive abilities and resistance to _____?
Answer: Infections
Explanation: Iron deficiency weakens immunity and cognitive function.
Q32. Sea food is an excellent source of protein because it’s usually low in ______?
Answer: Fats
Explanation: Seafood provides high-quality protein with low fat content.
Q33. Each mole of glucose produce maximum energy i.e ______?
Answer: 2827 KJ
Explanation: Complete oxidation of one mole of glucose releases about 2827 Kj energy.
Q34. The breakdown of food molecules to release energy is called?
Answer: Respiration
Explanation: Respiration breaks down food to release usable energy.
Q35. In chloroplast different pigments absorb light of different _____?
Answer: Wavelength
Explanation: Pigments absorb specific wavelengths of light.
Q36. Chloroplast is double membrane bounded organelle have semifluid protein containing membrane called ____?
Answer: Stroma
Explanation: Stroma is the semifluid matrix inside chloroplast.
Q37. Photosynthesis is the only process which produces free O2 by splitting _____?
Answer: Water
Explanation: Oxygen is released by the splitting of water molecules.
Q38. Feeding sequences and relationships are called?
Answer: Food chains
Explanation: Food chains show feeding relationships among organisms.
Q39. Plant utilizes simple inorganic molecules (CO2 and H2O) to prepare _____?
Answer: Glucose and oxygen
Explanation: Photosynthesis produces glucose and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water.
Q40. In living organisms energy is stored in a special molecule called?
Answer: ATP
Explanation: ATP is the energy currency of the cell.
Q41. Conversion of free energy into different forms by living organisms is called?
Answer: Bioenergetics
Explanation: Bioenergetics studies energy transformations in living systems.
Q42. The only source of energy on earth is ____?
Answer: Sun
Explanation: The sun is the primary source of energy for life on Earth.
Q43. In the human body there are more than _____ known enzymes.
Answer: 1000
Explanation: Over one thousand enzymes are known in the human body.
Q44. Enzyme changes in pH can cause enzymes to ______?
Answer: Denature
Explanation: Extreme pH changes can denature enzymes.
Q45. As temperature increases, initially the rate of reaction will _____?
Answer: Increase
Explanation: Higher temperature increases molecular collisions, raising reaction rate.
Q46. Small portion of enzyme where substrate attach with enzyme called _____?
Answer: Active site
Explanation: Substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme.
Q47. Activity of enzymes can be enhanced by ____?
Answer: Activator and Coenzyme
Explanation: Enzyme activity can be enhanced by activators and coenzymes. Activators increase enzyme activity by binding to the enzyme and improving its catalytic efficiency, while coenzymes are organic non-protein helper molecules, often derived from vitamins, that assist enzymes in carrying out biochemical reactions.
Q48. In constructive reaction _____ molecules are formed.
Answer: Large
Explanation: Constructive reactions form large molecules from smaller ones.
Q49. Presence of enzyme does not affect the nature or properties of ______?
Answer: End products
Explanation: Enzymes do not change the final products of reactions.
Q50. Enzymes catalyze chemical reaction by _____ the activation energy.
Answer: Lowering
Explanation: Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering activation energy.

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Stage-02

Q51. There are ____ types of metabolic reactions.
Answer: Two
Explanation: Metabolic reactions are of two types: anabolic (constructive) and catabolic (destructive).
Q52. Sequence of changes which occurs between one cell division and the next is called?
Answer: Cell cycle
Explanation: Cell cycle includes all stages a cell passes through between two successive divisions.
Q53. Cell death which is caused by external factor called ____?
Answer: Necrosis
Explanation: Necrosis is cell death caused by external injury or harmful conditions.
Q54. During metaphase homologous chromosomes arrange themselves on the _____?
Answer: Equator of the spindle
Explanation: In metaphase, chromosomes align at the equatorial plane of the spindle.
Q55. In animal meiosis produces _____?
Answer: Gametes
Explanation: Meiosis in animals produces haploid gametes.
Q56. Period of extensive metabolic activity, in which cell grow, enzymes are synthesizes?
Answer: G1 phase
Explanation: G1 phase is characterized by cell growth and synthesis of enzymes and proteins.
Q57. Chromosomes consist of two genetically identical copies of thread called?
Answer: Chromatids
Explanation: Each chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids.
Q58. Chromosomes with one arm very small and other very long called ____?
Answer: Acrocentric
Explanation: Acrocentric chromosomes have one very short arm and one long arm.
Q59. Chromosomes in the cell which are similar to each other in shape and size are called?
Answer: Homologous pair
Explanation: Homologous chromosomes are similar in shape, size, and genetic content.
Q60. The two chromatids are attached to each other at ______?
Answer: Centromere
Explanation: Sister chromatids are joined at the centromere.
Q61. Chromosomes are thread like structures appear at the time of _____?
Answer: Cell division
Explanation: Chromosomes become visible during cell division.
Q62. The microtubules arranged in a very particular pattern to form centriole are _____ in number.
Answer: 27
Explanation: A centriole consists of 9 triplets of microtubules, totaling 27.
Q63. Special type of movement of specific substances through carrier protein is _____?
Answer: Facilitated diffusion
Explanation: Facilitated diffusion uses carrier proteins to move substances without energy.
Q64. Plant cell loses water and cytoplasm shrinks in a process called?
Answer: Plasmolysis
Explanation: Plasmolysis occurs when a plant cell loses water and its cytoplasm shrinks.
Q65. Diffusion is a _____ process, which does not require energy input.
Answer: Passive
Explanation: Diffusion occurs without the use of cellular energy.
Q66. Cell membrane is composed of _____ layer.
Answer: Double
Explanation: Cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer.
Q67. In plants, the cell wall is composed mainly of strong fibers of ____?
Answer: Cellulose
Explanation: Plant cell walls are mainly made of cellulose fibers.
Q68. Electron has a much shorter wavelength than visible light, and this allows electron microscopes to produce _____ images.
Answer: Higher-resolution
Explanation: Shorter wavelength enables electron microscopes to resolve finer details.
Q69. Magnification of a light microscope is formed by using mixture of the power of the eyepiece and the _____ lens.
Answer: Objective
Explanation: Total magnification is calculated by eyepiece × objective lens.
Q70. Resolution of a microscope is defined as the smallest distance between _____ points.
Answer: Two
Explanation: Resolution is the ability to distinguish two close points separately.
Q71. Microscopes are instrument designed to produce _____ visual image.
Answer: Magnified
Explanation: Microscopes magnify small objects for clear observation.
Q72. Animals which are at the risk of extinction in future called?
Answer: Endangered
Explanation: Endangered animals are species that are at a serious risk of extinction in the near future.
Q73. Cutting down of trees called?
Answer: Deforestation
Explanation: Deforestation refers to large-scale cutting of trees.
Q74. Scientific name of any organism should be _____ when printed.
Answer: Italicized
Explanation: Scientific names are written in italics when printed.
Q75. Which one of the following are achlorophyllous and absorptive living organism?
Answer: Fungi
Explanation: Fungi lack chlorophyll and absorb nutrients from surroundings.
Q76. Most protists are ______?
Answer: Aquatic
Explanation: Most protists live in aquatic environments.
Q77. Science of classification is called?
Answer: Taxonomy
Explanation: Taxonomy deals with classification of living organisms.
Q78. ______ structures have different functions (physiology) but having similar internal architecture.
Answer: Homologous
Explanation: Homologous structures share similar anatomy but may perform different functions.
Q79. _____ species are given scientific names.
Answer: All
Explanation: Every species is assigned a scientific name.
Q80. Degree of variation within or among the species exists on different regions of the earth called?
Answer: Biodiversity
Explanation: Biodiversity refers to variation of life across regions.
Q81. Ratio is comparison of _____ values.
Answer: Two
Explanation: Ratio compares two quantities or values.
Q82. Once you have the data, you may need to perform _____ analysis.
Answer: Mathematical
Explanation: Data analysis often involves mathematical calculations.
Q83. The uniform or constant fact of nature, virtually an irrefutable theory is _____?
Answer: Scientific law
Explanation: Scientific laws describe consistent natural phenomena.
Q84. Final step of the scientific method is developing?
Answer: Conclusion
Explanation: Conclusion summarizes results and findings of an experiment.
Q85. Scientific reasoning based on “if-then” statement called?
Answer: Deductive reasoning
Explanation: Deductive reasoning moves from general principles to specific conclusions.
Q86. The key component of the scientific process is ______?
Answer: Hypothesis
Explanation: Hypothesis provides a testable explanation.
Q87. Solution of biological problem starts with ______?
Answer: Observation
Explanation: Observation helps identify biological problems.
Q88. Problem solving approach of biology and other sciences called?
Answer: Scientific Method
Explanation: Scientific method is a systematic approach to problem solving.
Q89. Radio labeling and carbon dating also show some uses of radioactive isotopes in determining the ____ of fossils.
Answer: Age
Explanation: Carbon dating determines the age of fossils.
Q90. Fish is one of the best source of ______?
Answer: Protein
Explanation: Fish provides high-quality protein.
Q91. Foundation of life based on _____?
Answer: Chemical foundation
Explanation: Life is based on chemical compounds and reactions.
Q92. Part of earth where life exists is called ______?
Answer: Biosphere
Explanation: Biosphere includes all regions where life is present.
Q93. The Muslim scientists who identified many diseases like tuberculosis, meningitis and other such inflammations was _____?
Answer: Bu Ali Sina
Explanation: Bu Ali Sina described many diseases in his medical works.
Q94. Members of different species living in specific habitat are called?
Answer: Community
Explanation: Community consists of populations of different species.
Q95. Part of agriculture for the development of new varieties of plant, and their fruit is _____?
Answer: Horticulture
Explanation: Horticulture deals with development of fruits and plants.
Q96. The study of distribution of different living organisms in different regions of the world is called?
Answer: Biogeography
Explanation: Biogeography studies distribution of organisms.
Q97. Techniques for manipulation of gene to achieve desirable characters are called?
Answer: Biotechnology
Explanation: Biotechnology involves genetic manipulation for beneficial traits.
Q98. Movement of water molecules from the area of higher water potential to the area of lower water potential called?
Answer: Osmosis
Explanation: Osmosis is movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
Q99. Part of root between epidermis and endodermis called?
Answer: Cortex
Explanation: Cortex lies between epidermis and endodermis.
Q100. A type of circulatory system blood flow through the spaces among tissues called?
Answer: Open type circulatory system
Explanation: In open circulatory system, blood flows through tissue spaces.

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Stage-03

Q101. Human plasma proteins include which of the following?
Answer: Both A and C (Albumin and fibrinogen)
Explanation: Human plasma proteins mainly include albumin and fibrinogen.
Q102. Phloem transport of sucrose can be described as going from “source to sink” which of the following would not normally function as a sink?
Answer: Mature leaf
Explanation: Mature leaves usually act as sources, not sinks.
Q103. What regulates the flow of water through the xylem?
Answer: The evaporation of water from the leaves
Explanation: Transpiration pull caused by evaporation regulates water flow in xylem.
Q104. The movement of organic materials (food) take place through ______?
Answer: Phloem
Explanation: Phloem transports organic food materials in plants.
Q105. Which of the following is true of bile salts?
Answer: They emulsify fats in the duodenum
Explanation: Bile salts break fats into small droplets to aid digestion.
Q106. All are sources of calcium except?
Answer: Red meat
Explanation: Red meat is not a significant source of calcium.
Q107. In human digestive system trachea and oesophagus both connect to the _____?
Answer: Pharynx
Explanation: Both trachea and oesophagus open into the pharynx.
Q108. Which of the following statements describes pepsin?
Answer: It begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach
Explanation: Pepsin digests proteins in the stomach.
Q109. Which of the following vitamins is correctly associated with its use?
Answer: Vitamin A → Incorporated into the visual pigment of the eye
Explanation: Vitamin A is required for formation of visual pigments.
Q110. An animal that migrates great distances would obtain the greatest benefit from storing its energy as ____?
Answer: Fats
Explanation: Fats store more energy per gram than carbohydrates or proteins.
Q111. Deficiency of dietary protein, causes an imbalance in the gastro-intestinal system?
Answer: Kwashiorkor
Explanation: Kwashiorkor results from protein deficiency.
Q112. Period of rapid growth and development called?
Answer: Adolescence
Explanation: Adolescence is marked by rapid physical growth and development.
Q113. Deficiency of Vitamin-K cause?
Answer: Anemia
Explanation: Anemia can result from various factors, including iron deficiency or blood loss, but Vitamin K deficiency primarily affects blood clotting, which may indirectly contribute to anemia in severe cases.
Q114. Select one the mismatched?
Answer: Fats → Starch
Explanation: Fats are not made of starch.
Q115. Splitting of glucose (glycolysis) release small amount of energy which is enough to generate _____?
Answer: 2 ATP
Explanation: Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP molecules.
Q116. Splitting of water in presence of light called?
Answer: Photolysis
Explanation: Photolysis occurs during light reactions of photosynthesis.
Q117. Reaction in which solar energy is transferred to glucose from ATP and NADPH2, takes place in stroma called?
Answer: Dark reaction
Explanation: Dark reaction occurs in stroma using ATP and NADPH.
Q118. Light dependent reaction takes place in ______?
Answer: Thylakoid
Explanation: Light reactions occur on thylakoid membranes.
Q119. Fundamental molecule produced during photosynthesis is ______?
Answer: Glucose
Explanation: Glucose is the primary product of photosynthesis.
Q120. Each mole of ATP store energy?
Answer: 7.3 kcal/mole
Explanation: One mole of ATP stores about 7.3 kcal of energy.
Q121. Loss of electron and proton is called?
Answer: Oxidation reaction
Explanation: Oxidation involves loss of electrons and protons.
Q122. In a process of cellular respiration 180 ATP molecules are produced, how many moles of glucose consume during this process?
Answer: 5
Explanation: If 1 mole of glucose produces approximately 36 ATP, then producing 180 ATP requires about 5 moles of glucose.
Q123. In an oxidation process 14135KJ energy is release, how many moles of glucose consume during this process?
Answer: 5
Explanation: Approximate energy yield suggests consumption of five moles of glucose.
Q124. Choose the correct statement regarding lock and key model?
Answer: Enzyme and substrate posses’ specific complementary geometric shapes
Explanation: Lock and key model is based on shape complementarity.
Q125. Rate of reaction will increase when temperature ______?
Answer: Increases
Explanation: Increase in temperature increases kinetic energy of molecules.
Q126. All are factors affecting enzyme activity except?
Answer: Organic solvent
Explanation: Organic solvent is not a normal physiological factor.
Q127. Chemical reaction requires particular conditions to carry down at proper rate, especially?
Answer: Temperature and Pressure
Explanation: Temperature and pressure influence reaction rates.
Q128. Which one of the following is mismatched?
Answer: Proteases → Carbohydrate
Explanation: Proteases act on proteins, not carbohydrates.
Q129. Active site continuously changes it shapes until the substrate do not bind to it, is statement of ______?
Answer: Induce fit model
Explanation: Induced fit model explains shape change of active site.
Q130. The point where the enzyme is most active is known as ______?
Answer: Optimum pH
Explanation: Enzymes work best at their optimum pH.
Q131. Metabolic reactions are _______?
Answer: Both A and B (constructive and destructive reactions)
Explanation: Metabolism includes both constructive and destructive reactions.
Q132. All are characters of enzymes except?
Answer: Enzyme activity enhanced by inhibitors
Explanation: Inhibitors reduce enzyme activity.
Q133. Phenomenon in which pair of homologous chromosome fails to separate called?
Answer: Non-disjunction
Explanation: Non-disjunction causes improper separation of chromosomes.
Q134. Stage of meiosis in which centromeres shorten and the paired chromatids are pulled away from one another?
Answer: Anaphase-II
Explanation: In anaphase-II sister chromatids separate.
Q135. Stage of mitosis in which chromatids reach the poles and their movement ceases?
Answer: Telophase
Explanation: Chromatids reach poles in telophase.
Q136. A type of cell division in which spore mother cell produce spores?
Answer: Meiosis
Explanation: Meiosis produces spores in plants.
Q137. Choose the incorrect statement regarding meiosis?
Answer: Production of new somatic cells from germ cells
Explanation: Meiosis does not produce somatic cells.
Q138. Sequence of physiological changes by which cell commit suicide?
Answer: Apoptosis
Explanation: Apoptosis is programmed cell death.
Q139. Which process occurs during prophase of mitosis in an animal cell?
Answer: Formation of chromosomes and Separation of centrioles
Explanation: During prophase of mitosis in an animal cell, chromatin condenses into discrete chromosomes (formation of chromosomes), and the duplicated centrioles begin to move toward opposite poles to organize the mitotic spindle (separation of centrioles)
Q140. Which of the following is mismatched?
Answer: Telophase → Nuclear membrane disappear
Explanation: Nuclear membrane reappears in telophase.
Q141. What occurs in metaphase of mitosis?
Answer: Chromosome line up on the equator of the cell
Explanation: Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate.
Q142. Select the mismatched one of the followings?
Answer: Ribosomes → Synthesis of steroids
Explanation: Ribosomes synthesize proteins, not steroids.
Q143. Cell organelle found in animal cell and help intracellular digestion?
Answer: Lysosome
Explanation: Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes.
Q144. Trace the correct pathway of protein produce from protein factories?
Answer: Ribosomes → RER → Golgi body → Lysosome
Explanation: Proteins move from ribosomes to RER and Golgi.
Q145. Select the odd one of the followings?
Answer: Active transport
Explanation: Active transport is different from facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion because it requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient, whereas the others are passive processes.
Q146. Secondary wall is made up of ______?
Answer: Cellulose and lignin
Explanation: Secondary cell wall contains cellulose and lignin.
Q147. Which process allow movement in and out of cell?
Answer: All of these (Osmosis, diffusion and active transport )
Explanation: Osmosis, diffusion and active transport all allow movement.
Q148. Which statement about the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure is correct?
Answer: The more unsaturated the fatty acid, the more fluid nature
Explanation: Unsaturated fatty acids increase membrane fluidity.
Q149. What is a function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Answer: Synthesis of protein
Explanation: RER has ribosomes for protein synthesis.
Q150. What is responsible for the high resolution of the electron microscope?
Answer: Short wavelength of the electron beam
Explanation: Shorter wavelength increases resolving power.

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Stage-04

Q151. What is responsible for the high resolution of the electron microscope?
Answer: Short wavelength of the electron beam
Explanation: The short wavelength of electrons allows the electron microscope to resolve very small structures, giving it high resolution.
Q152. Biodiversity is effected with _______?
Answer: All of these (Pollution, deforestation, and over hunting)
Explanation: Pollution, deforestation, and over hunting all negatively affect biodiversity.
Q153. Members of which kingdom have cell wall and are all heterotrophic?
Answer: Fungi
Explanation: Fungi have cell walls made of chitin and are heterotrophic.
Q154. Biological name of cat?
Answer: Felis catus
Explanation: The scientific (biological) name for domestic cat is Felis catus.
Q155. In five kingdom system virus placed in ______?
Answer: No Kingdom
Explanation: Viruses are acellular and do not belong to any of the five kingdoms. Because they are considered non-cellular (acellular) and not truly living organisms, they were not included by R.H. Whittaker in his 1969 classification system. 
Q156. In four kingdom classification, kingdom Metaphyta includes all of the following except?
Answer: Algae
Explanation: Metaphyta includes multicellular plants like angiosperms and gymnosperms, not algae.
Q157. In the taxonomic hierarchy choose the term which encompasses all other in the list?
Answer: Class
Explanation: In taxonomy, class contains multiple orders, families, genera, and species.
Q158. All are involve in classification except?
Answer: Analogous
Explanation: Analogous structures are not used in classification; homologous structures and cytology are.
Q159. Identify the correct sequence of classifying an organism?
Answer: Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
Explanation: The standard taxonomic hierarchy follows this sequence from broadest to most specific.
Q160. Select the mismatched one of the following?
Answer: Animalia → Amoeba
Explanation: Amoeba belongs to Protista, not Animalia.
Q161 Which of the following is the correct way of writing a scientific name of an organism?
Answer: Binomial nomenclature
Explanation: A scientific name uses two parts – genus (capitalized) and species (lowercase), usually italicized (e.g., Homo sapiens).
Q162. In data organization, which method is mostly useful?
Answer: Both a and b (Tables and graphs)
Explanation: Tables and graphs are both useful for organizing and presenting data.
Q163. What is a hypothesis?
Answer: A tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsified
Explanation: A hypothesis is a testable statement used in scientific investigation.
Q164. The comparison of two values is called _____?
Answer: Ratio
Explanation: A ratio is the quantitative comparison of two numbers or values.
Q165. Equation stating that two ratios are equal _____?
Answer: Proportion
Explanation: A proportion equates two ratios mathematically.
Q166. Quantitative observation is the use of _____?
Answer: Equipment
Explanation: Quantitative observations rely on measurements and instruments.
Q167. Scientific reasoning moves from specific to general ____?
Answer: Inductive
Explanation: Inductive reasoning develops general conclusions from specific observations.
Q168. Biological method involves all of the following except?
Answer: Proportion
Explanation: Biological methods include observation and data collection, not proportion.
Q169. Field of research that examines mathematical representations of biological system called _____?
Answer: Mathematical biology
Explanation: Mathematical biology uses math to model biological processes.
Q170. Select the odd one of the following?
Answer: Ratio
Explanation: Theory, law, and hypothesis are scientific concepts; ratio is a mathematical term.
Q171. Select the correct sequence of biological method?
Answer: Hypothesis → Reasoning → Theory → Law
Explanation: Scientific method progresses from hypothesis to reasoning, then to theory and finally law.
Q172. Select the correct sequence of biological organization?
Answer: Atom → Molecule → Cell → Tissue → Organ
Explanation: Biological organization progresses from the smallest chemical unit to complex structures.
Q173. Science of diagnosis and treatment of diseases ____?
Answer: Both B and C (Medicine and surgery)
Explanation: Medicine and surgery both involve diagnosing and treating diseases.
Q174. Choose the one incorrect statement from the followings?
Answer: Members of different species form population
Explanation: A population consists of members of the same species, not different species.
Q175. Laws and techniques of physics are applied to explain the living processes of life?
Answer: Biophysics
Explanation: Biophysics applies physical principles to study biological processes.
Q176. Increased quantity and quality of fish production?
Answer: Fisheries
Explanation: Fisheries focus on managing and increasing fish production.
Q177. A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a ____?
Answer: Population
Explanation: A population consists of individuals of the same species living in a specific area.
Q178. Which of the following is non-cellular or acellular organism?
Answer: Virus
Explanation: Viruses are acellular and do not have a cellular structure.
Q179. The phase of the cell cycle in which DNA synthesis occurs is _____?
Answer: S Phase
Explanation: During S phase, the cell replicates its DNA.
Q180. The phase of the cell cycle in which DNA synthesis occurs is _____?
Answer: S Phase
Explanation: DNA synthesis happens in S phase before mitosis.

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Stage-05

Q181. About 80–90% of living animals in soil are ______?
Answer: Nematodes
Explanation: Nematodes are the most abundant animals in soil, playing a key role in nutrient cycling and soil ecology.
Q182. The range of light absorbed by plants for photosynthesis is approximately?
Answer: 400–650 nm
Explanation: Plants mainly absorb light in the 400–650 nm range, which includes blue and red light.
Q183. Chlorophyll is a green substance that is present in _____?
Answer: Chloroplast
Explanation: Chlorophyll is located in the chloroplasts of plant cells.
Q184. Chlorophyll is present in ______?
Answer: Algae
Explanation: Algae contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis, unlike animals and viruses.
Q185. In honeybees, the queen and worker bees are _____?
Answer: Diploid
Explanation: Both queen and worker bees develop from fertilized eggs and are diploid.
Q186. A group of plants sharing the same characteristics and environment is called _____?
Answer: Plant Species
Explanation: A species is a group of plants with similar characteristics that can interbreed.
Q187. Study of the evolution of man as an animal is known as?
Answer: Anthropology
Explanation: Anthropology studies human evolution, biology, and culture.
Q188. The study of tissues is called _____?
Answer: Histology
Explanation: Histology is the branch of biology that studies tissues.
Q189. The bacteria which convert nitrite (NO₂⁻) to nitrate (NO₃⁻) is _____?
Answer: Nitrobacter
Explanation: Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate in the nitrogen cycle.
Q190. The process of converting double-stranded DNA to single-stranded DNA is called _____?
Answer: Denaturation
Explanation: Denaturation separates DNA strands without changing the nucleotide sequence.
Q191. A part of maize seed that contains stored food is called?
Answer: Endosperm
Explanation: Endosperm stores nutrients to support the developing embryo.
Q192. In plants, the exchange of gases occurs through ______?
Answer: Stomata
Explanation: Stomata allow gas exchange (O₂, CO₂) between plant and environment.
Q193. What is the location of flat bones in humans?
Answer: Skull and ribs
Explanation: Flat bones provide protection and surface for muscle attachment, e.g., skull and ribs.
Q194. Who is called the Father of French Revolution?
Answer: J.J Rousseau
Explanation: Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s ideas influenced the French Revolution.
Q195. What is the age of the Father of French Revolution (J.J Rousseau)?
Answer: 66 years
Explanation: Rousseau lived for 66 years (1712–1778).
Q196. The mental act, condition or habit of placing trust or confidence in another shows which of the following options?
Answer: Belief
Explanation: Belief is the mental acceptance of something as true or trusted.
Q197. Meat, vegetables, fruits, and cereals are examples of ______?
Answer: Nutritive food
Explanation: Nutritive foods provide essential nutrients and energy for the body.
Q198. Plants that can survive in low (less) water conditions are called _____?
Answer: Xerophytes
Explanation: Xerophytes are adapted to survive in dry environments.
Q199. Meristematic cells are _____?
Answer: Undifferentiated
Explanation: Meristematic cells are undifferentiated and can divide to form other cell types.
Q200. Meristem has _____ form of carbohydrates in plant cells.
Answer: Starch
Explanation: Starch is stored in meristematic cells as an energy source for growth.
Q201. Sugar present in DNA is _____?
Answer: Deoxyribose
Explanation: DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose in its nucleotide structure.
Q202. Butterfly, moth and honeybee are _____?
Answer: Pollinators
Explanation: These insects transfer pollen from one flower to another, aiding plant reproduction.
Q203. The complete, mature & infectious particle of virus is known as?
Answer: Virion
Explanation: Virion is the fully formed, infectious virus particle.
Q204. Ascorbic Acid is also known as ______?
Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is essential for collagen formation and antioxidant activity.
Q205. Which of the following is the most common form of color blindness, usually found in males?
Answer: Difficulty in distinguishing red from green
Explanation: Red-green color blindness is the most common X-linked condition.
Q206. Disease which travels itself from place to place is called?
Answer: Epidemic
Explanation: An epidemic refers to a disease spreading rapidly in a particular area.
Q207. Which disease causes difficulty in breathing?
Answer: Asthma
Explanation: Asthma is a respiratory condition causing airway constriction and breathing difficulty.
Q208. Hydrochloric acid is necessary for easy digestion of?
Answer: Proteins
Explanation: HCl in the stomach denatures proteins and activates pepsin.
Q209. Which vitamin prevents hemorrhaging?
Answer: K
Explanation: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and prevents excessive bleeding.
Q210. Vitamin A is essential for?
Answer: All of these 
Explanation: Vitamin A supports skeletal growth, night vision, and healthy epithelial tissues.

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Stage-06

Q211. Which type of vitamin is used for human body through sun?
Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin when exposed to sunlight and is essential for calcium absorption.
Q212. When HIV identified?
Answer: 1983
Explanation: HIV was first identified in 1983 as the virus causing AIDS.
Q213. The average adult has a blood volume of about ___ litters.
Answer: 5
Explanation: An average adult has approximately 5 liters of blood circulating in the body.
Q214. What is H5N1?
Answer: Virus
Explanation: H5N1 is a subtype of the influenza virus that can infect birds and humans.
Q215. Who coined the term gene?
Answer: Wilhelm Johannes
Explanation: Wilhelm Johannsen introduced the term “gene” in 1909 to describe hereditary units.
Q216. Which part of the brain control the Heart?
Answer: Medulla Oblongata
Explanation: Medulla oblongata regulates involuntary functions including heartbeat and breathing.
Q217. When Magma reached the surface is called?
Answer: Lava
Explanation: Magma that emerges on the Earth’s surface is called lava.
Q218. What is the name given to the study of fingerprints?
Answer: Dactyloscopy
Explanation: Dactyloscopy is the scientific study and identification of fingerprints.
Q219. A universal donor has the blood group?
Answer: O-
Explanation: O-negative blood can be given to individuals of any blood group without risk of ABO incompatibility.
Q220. What is the blood circulation rate in human arteries?
Answer: 30-40 cm/s
Explanation: Blood flows at approximately 30–40 cm/s in the large arteries of a healthy adult.
Q221. The structure in a cell which contains the genes is called?
Answer: Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosomes are thread-like structures that carry genetic information in the form of genes.
Q222. Where is the bile stored and intermittently released into the small intestine to aid digestion?
Answer: Gall Bladder
Explanation: The gall bladder stores bile and releases it into the small intestine to aid in fat digestion.
Q223. Area in a desert where there is sufficient water for plants is called?
Answer: Oasis
Explanation: An oasis is a fertile area in a desert where water is available for plants and animals.
Q224. The continuous movement of continents is called Continental?
Answer: Drift
Explanation: Continental drift refers to the slow movement of Earth’s continents over geological time.
Q225. The lowest zone of atmosphere containing about seventy five percent of total mass of atmosphere and ninety percent of its water vapour is called?
Answer: Troposphere
Explanation: The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs and most water vapor is present.
Q226. The Study of Universe, its origin, nature and evaluation is called?
Answer: Cosmology
Explanation: Cosmology studies the origin, structure, evolution, and eventual fate of the universe.
Q227. What is meant by Etymology?
Answer: The study of the origins of words and how they have changed over time
Explanation: Etymology examines word origins, history, and development of meaning.
Q228. Law of Independent Assortment was given by ______?
Answer: Mendel
Explanation: Gregor Mendel formulated the law of independent assortment during his pea plant experiments.
Q229. Osteomalacia is caused due to deficiency of ______?
Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bones, known as osteomalacia in adults.
Q230. Protein present in egg yolk is rich in ______?
Answer: Calciferol
Explanation: Egg yolk contains proteins rich in calciferol (Vitamin D) and other nutrients.
Q231. Paediatrics is relevant to?
Answer: Children
Explanation: Paediatrics is the branch of medicine that deals with the health and medical care of children.
Q232. The art of breeding Silk Worm and production of Silk is called?
Answer: Sericulture
Explanation: Sericulture involves the cultivation of silkworms to produce silk.
Q233. What Pacemaker does?
Answer: It regulates the heart beat
Explanation: The pacemaker (SA node) controls the rhythm of heartbeats by sending electrical impulses.
Q234. Maslow’s “Need Hierarchy” theory relates to?
Answer: Motivation
Explanation: Maslow’s hierarchy of needs explains human motivation based on fulfilling successive levels of needs.
Q235. The sugar present in milk?
Answer: Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is the primary sugar found in mammalian milk.
Q236. HP processing of fruit and vegetables mean ______?
Answer: High pressure
Explanation: HP (High Pressure) processing preserves food by inactivating microbes without high temperatures.
Q237. Fructose sugar is also known as _____?
Answer: Monosaccharides
Explanation: Fructose is a simple sugar (monosaccharide) naturally found in fruits and honey.
Q238. Fat is stored in which part of the body?
Answer: Subcutaneous
Explanation: Fat is primarily stored under the skin in subcutaneous tissue.
Q239. The deficiency of Vitamin A causes?
Answer: Night Blindness
Explanation: Lack of Vitamin A affects vision in low light, leading to night blindness.
Q240. Deficiency of Vitamin D results in _____?
Answer: Rickets
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency in children causes weak and deformed bones, a condition called rickets.

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Stage-07

Q241. Deficiency of Vitamin D results in _____?
Answer: Rickets
Explanation: Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium and phosphorus. Its deficiency causes soft and weak bones, leading to rickets in children.
Q242. What is defined as the minimal point of soil moisture the plant requires?
Answer: Wilting Point
Explanation: The permanent wilting point is the stage at which soil moisture becomes so low that plants cannot absorb water and start wilting irreversibly.
Q243. The protein factories of cells are _______?
Answer: Ribosome
Explanation: Ribosomes are cell organelles responsible for protein synthesis by translating messenger RNA into amino acid chains.
Q244. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
Answer: Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose, whereas monosaccharides are single sugar units like glucose and fructose.
Q245. Which of the following has maximum water content?
Answer: Vegetables
Explanation: Most vegetables contain very high water content, typically around 90–96%, which is higher than many fruits and processed foods.
Q246. Pasteurization of milk depends on ______?
Answer: Both temperature and time
Explanation: Pasteurization requires heating milk to a specific temperature for a defined time to destroy harmful microorganisms without affecting quality.
Q247. Which one of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest warming effect?
Answer: Carbon Dioxide
Explanation: Although some gases are more potent per molecule, carbon dioxide contributes the most to global warming due to its large concentration in the atmosphere.
Q248. The yeast used in baking bread is a?
Answer: Fungus
Explanation: Yeast is a unicellular fungus that ferments sugars and produces carbon dioxide, causing dough to rise.
Q249. The disease Diphtheria affects which part of the human body?
Answer: Throat
Explanation: Diphtheria is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the throat, forming a thick membrane that can obstruct breathing.
Q250. Study of relationship of organisms to their environment is called?
Answer: Ecology
Explanation: Ecology is the branch of biology that studies interactions between living organisms and their physical environment.
Q251. Deforestation at large scale can be observed at _____?
Answer: Amazon forest
Explanation: The Amazon rainforest experiences large-scale deforestation mainly due to agriculture, logging, and land development.
Q252. Which of the following gas is mainly responsible for ozone layer depletion?
Answer: Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
Explanation: CFCs release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere, which break down ozone molecules and thin the ozone layer.
Q253. Vitamins that are produced by the body and not found in fruits and vegetables?
Answer: B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 is produced by microorganisms and is mainly obtained from animal-based foods rather than plant sources.
Q254. The milk needs to be heated for complete pasteurization at 161°F for _____ seconds.
Answer: 15 seconds
Explanation: This is the High-Temperature Short-Time (HTST) method, which effectively kills harmful bacteria while preserving milk quality.
Q255. The energy value of fats and oils is _____ times more than carbohydrates and proteins.
Answer: 2.25
Explanation: Fats provide 9 kcal per gram, whereas carbohydrates and proteins provide 4 kcal per gram, making fats about 2.25 times more energy-dense.
Q256. The vitamin that controls the browning in fruits with the help of enzymes is _____?
Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation: Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant and prevents enzymatic browning by inhibiting oxidation in cut fruits.
Q257. _____ makes up 14 to 17 percent of the skeleton.
Answer: Phosphorus
Explanation: Phosphorus is the second most abundant mineral in bones and teeth after calcium and plays a key role in skeletal structure.
Q258. Cirrhosis is a disease that affects _____?
Answer: Liver
Explanation: Cirrhosis is the scarring of liver tissue due to long-term damage from alcohol, infections, or toxins.
Q259. Stimulus intensity in the brain is detected by _____?
Answer: Number of action potentials per second
Explanation: The brain interprets stimulus strength based on the frequency of nerve impulses rather than their size.
Q260. In plant cells, which reaction occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasts?
Answer: Calvin cycle
Explanation: The Calvin cycle is the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis where carbon dioxide is converted into glucose in the stroma.
Q261. Approximately what fraction of the human genome contains proteins?
Answer: 1% to 2%
Explanation: Only a small portion of human DNA codes for proteins, while the rest is involved in regulation and other functions.
Q262. Father of Modern Science Fiction is?
Answer: H. G. Wells
Explanation: H. G. Wells is regarded as the father of modern science fiction due to his influential works like The Time Machine and The War of the Worlds.
Q263. Oxygen by volume has a presence in the atmosphere of about?
Answer: 21%
Explanation: Earth’s atmosphere contains approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and small amounts of other gases.
Q264. Heat of the sun reaches the earth by ________?
Answer: Radiation
Explanation: Heat travels through the vacuum of space by electromagnetic radiation since conduction and convection require a medium.
Q265. The study of races of Man is called?
Answer: Ethnology
Explanation: Ethnology studies different human populations, their cultures, and relationships among various ethnic groups.
Q266. Vitamin ___ cannot be stored in the Human Body.
Answer: C
Explanation: Vitamin C is water-soluble and excess amounts are excreted in urine, so it must be consumed regularly.
Q267. Ornithology is the science which deals with ____?
Answer: Study of birds
Explanation: Ornithology is the branch of zoology that focuses on the study of birds, including their behavior, physiology, and classification.
Q268. Cholera is caused by _____?
Answer: Bacteria
Explanation: Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, usually transmitted through contaminated water or food.
Q269. Who discovered homeopathy?
Answer: Samuel Hahnemann
Explanation: Samuel Hahnemann, a German physician, developed homeopathy based on the principle of “like cures like.”
Q270. Breakbone fever is another name for ____?
Answer: Dengue
Explanation: Dengue fever is called breakbone fever because it causes severe joint and muscle pain resembling bone-breaking sensations.

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Stage-08

Q271. What is the weight of the heart of an adult human being?
Answer: 300 grams
Explanation: The average weight of an adult human heart is about 300 grams, though it varies slightly between males and females.
Q272. Which disease is hereditary?
Answer: Hemophilia
Explanation: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder passed through chromosomes that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly.
Q273. During the process of photosynthesis, plants release _____?
Answer: Oxygen
Explanation: During photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide and water to make glucose, releasing oxygen as a byproduct.
Q274. Amnesia is related to ______?
Answer: Loss of memory
Explanation: Amnesia is a condition involving partial or complete loss of memory due to brain injury, disease, or psychological trauma.
Q275. Patella bone is present in _____?
Answer: Legs
Explanation: The patella, or kneecap, is a bone located at the knee joint in the leg, protecting and supporting knee movement.
Q276. Guava has the maximum amount of which Vitamin?
Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation: Guava is extremely rich in vitamin C, often containing several times more vitamin C than citrus fruits.
Q277. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down starch into maltose?
Answer: Amylase
Explanation: Amylase is an enzyme present in saliva and pancreatic juice that converts starch into maltose during digestion.
Q278. Which of the following is not caused by a virus?
Answer: Typhoid
Explanation: Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi, whereas diseases like flu and hepatitis are viral.
Q279. A mass of ice originating in snowfields above the snowline is called?
Answer: Glacier
Explanation: A glacier is a large body of ice formed from accumulated snow that moves slowly under its own weight.
Q280. The blood vessels that carry blood from other parts of the body to the heart are called?
Answer: Veins
Explanation: Veins transport blood back to the heart from different body parts, usually carrying deoxygenated blood.
Q281. What is/are the main cause/s of earthquakes?
Answer: All of the above (Volcanic activities, Tectonic plates’s movement & Tectonic dislocation)
Explanation: Earthquakes are mainly caused by tectonic plate movements, but volcanic eruptions and underground shifts can also trigger them.
Q282. Chromosomes are made up of _______?
Answer: DNA and Proteins
Explanation: Chromosomes consist of DNA tightly wound around histone proteins, forming a compact genetic structure.
Q283. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by ______?
Answer: Neurodegeneration
Explanation: Alzheimer’s disease involves progressive degeneration of brain cells, leading to memory loss and cognitive decline.
Q284. What is HX?
Answer: Virus
Explanation: HX is a subtype of Influenza A virus. “H” = Hemagglutinin, “N” = Neuraminidase, which help the virus enter cells and release new viruses (e.g., H1N1, H5N1).
Q285. Myopia is a disease related to _____?
Answer: Eye
Explanation: Myopia, or nearsightedness, is an eye condition in which distant objects appear blurry while close objects are seen clearly.
Q286. What is the only organ in the human body that remains fully active while sleeping?
Answer: Brain
Explanation: The brain remains active during sleep, controlling vital functions like breathing, heart rate, memory, and sleep cycles. During REM sleep, its activity can be as high as when awake.
Q287. Which animal has blue-colored blood?
Answer: Octopus
Explanation: Octopus blood appears blue because it contains hemocyanin, a copper-based molecule that transports oxygen.
Q288. Which part of the human body has no blood supply and gets nutrients directly from air?
Answer: Cornea
Explanation: The cornea has no blood vessels to remain transparent and receives oxygen directly from the surrounding air.
Q289. According to new research, the world’s oldest disease is?
Answer: Leprosy
Explanation: Leprosy is considered one of the oldest known diseases based on evidence from ancient human remains.
Q290. Which disease is more common in males than females?
Answer: Colour blindness
Explanation: Colour blindness is linked to the X chromosome, so males are more likely to be affected than females.
Q291. The age of a tree is determined by its ______?
Answer: Rings (Number of annual rings)
Explanation: Each growth ring in a tree trunk represents one year, allowing scientists to determine the tree’s age.
Q292. A 3-year-old girl is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which clinical feature confirms this?
Answer: Proteinuria 3+ or 4+ on dipstick
Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome causes excessive protein loss in urine, which is detected as high protein levels on a dipstick test.
Q293. A potential improvement in children with cerebral palsy through physiotherapy is?
Answer: Improved walking ability
Explanation: Physiotherapy helps strengthen muscles and improve balance and coordination, enhancing mobility in affected children.
Q294. What is a crucial step in nursing assessment when evaluating a suspected fracture?
Answer: Determining the mechanism of injury
Explanation: Understanding how the injury occurred helps assess the type, severity, and possible complications of the fracture.
Q295. Which intervention helps in clearing respiratory secretions in pneumonia?
Answer: Encouraging deep breathing exercises
Explanation: Deep breathing helps expand the lungs and mobilize mucus, aiding in clearing respiratory secretions.
Q296. Which intracranial infection can result from severe otitis media (ear infection)?
Answer: Meningitis
Explanation: Bacteria from a severe middle ear infection can spread to the brain’s protective membranes, causing meningitis.
Q297. Clinical manifestations in a child with Hypernatremia (High Sodium) except?
Answer: Tingling sensation
Explanation: Hypernatremia typically causes symptoms like thirst, confusion, and seizures; tingling is more related to calcium imbalance.
Q298. A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within 24 hours may indicate?
Answer: Hirschsprung disease
Explanation: Hirschsprung disease is a congenital condition where nerve cells are absent in parts of the colon, causing blockage.
Q299. Tetralogy of Fallot major defects except?
Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation: The four main defects are ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
Q300. During fetal circulation, pressure is increased in which heart chamber?
Answer: Right atrium
Explanation: In fetal circulation, pressure is higher in the right atrium to allow blood to pass through the foramen ovale, bypassing the non-functioning fetal lungs.

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Stage-09

Q301. During fetal circulation, the pressure of the blood will be increased in which heart chamber?
Answer: Right atrium
Explanation: Pressure is higher in the right atrium to push blood through the foramen ovale, bypassing the lungs.
Q302. A client who has just been raped is very quiet and calm. The nurse would analyze this behavior as indicative of which defense mechanism?
Answer: Denial
Explanation: Calmness may indicate denial or emotional numbness immediately after trauma.
Q303. During a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic episode, the nurse would expect the client to demonstrate ______?
Answer: Flight of ideas
Explanation: Rapidly shifting thoughts and speech are hallmark signs of mania.
Q304. When performing an assessment on a suicidal client, the nurse most appropriately asks?
Answer: Do you have any thoughts of killing yourself?
Explanation: Direct questioning is essential to assess immediate risk.
Q305. Which category of drugs includes substances such as heroin and morphine?
Answer: Opioids
Explanation: Opioids act on receptors to relieve pain but are highly addictive.
Q306. Which class of medications is most appropriate for treating depression in an elderly Parkinson’s patient?
Answer: SSRIs (Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor)
Explanation: SSRIs (like Sertraline) have fewer side effects and do not worsen Parkinson’s symptoms.
Q307. Mr. Saleem shows signs of paranoia, disorganized thinking, and occasional catatonia. What type of schizophrenia is this?
Answer: Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
Explanation: Meets general schizophrenia criteria but does not fit a single subtype.
Q308. A patient has excessive energy, talks rapidly, and has grandiose ideas. What phase of bipolar disorder is this?
Answer: Manic Episode
Explanation: Characterized by elevated mood, decreased sleep, and risky behavior.
Q309. Hamza talks about achievements, expects special treatment, and lacks empathy. Which personality disorder fits this?
Answer: Narcissistic Personality Disorder
Explanation: Long-term pattern of exaggerated self-importance and need for admiration.
Q310. What should be inspected and palpated in the throat and neck examination?
Answer: Trachea, thyroid, and lymph nodes
Explanation: Assess alignment, size, and swelling of primary neck structures.
Q311. Which part of the stethoscope is best for picking up low-pitched sounds such as bruits?
Answer: Bell
Explanation: Bell detects low-frequency sounds; diaphragm is for high-frequency sounds.
Q312. What is the normal finding for the head during inspection?
Answer: Symmetrical, round, erect, and midline
Explanation: Termed “Normocephalic.”
Q313. A patient has facial pain and pressure. The nurse palpates the sinuses for tenderness. What condition is this?
Answer: Sinusitis
Explanation: Maxillary and frontal sinus tenderness indicates sinus inflammation.
Q314. A nurse assesses for appendicitis using Rovsing’s sign. How is this performed?
Answer: Deep palpation of the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant
Explanation: Referred pain occurs due to shifting gas pressing on the inflamed appendix.
Q315. A patient presents with bluish discoloration around the umbilicus. What does this indicate?
Answer: Internal bleeding (peritoneal hemorrhage)
Explanation: Known as Cullen’s Sign, often from acute pancreatitis or ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Q316. When auscultating for vascular sounds in the abdomen, where should the nurse listen with the bell?
Answer: Abdominal aorta, renal, iliac, and femoral arteries
Explanation: Major abdominal pulse points where bruits can be heard.
Q317. During a respiratory assessment, the nurse hears a normal resonant sound. What is resonance?
Answer: Resonant sound
Explanation: Low-pitched, hollow sound over air-filled lung tissue.
Q318. Cullen’s Sign is associated with ______?
Answer: Discoloration over the umbilicus
Explanation: Indicates intra-abdominal bleeding.
Q319. What is the first step in a routine abdominal assessment?
Answer: Inspection
Explanation: Followed by auscultation, percussion, and palpation to avoid disturbing bowel sounds.
Q320. Heart, spleen, and kidney are favorable sites for which type of necrosis?
Answer: Coagulative necrosis
Explanation: Caused by ischemia in solid organs except the brain.
Q321. Which of the following is a late sign of airway obstruction?
Answer: Cyanosis
Explanation: Bluish skin appears after oxygen levels have dropped dangerously low.
Q322. What ventilator setting is critical in preventing injury in ARDS?
Answer: Low tidal volume (6 mL/kg IBW)
Explanation: Reduces volutrauma by preventing lung over-stretching.
Q323. A patient with MI has hypotension, cool extremities, and pulmonary congestion. What type of shock is this?
Answer: Cardiogenic shock
Explanation: Heart failure following myocardial infarction.
Q324. Which of the following is a late sign of shock?
Answer: Hypotension
Explanation: Blood pressure drops only after compensatory mechanisms fail.
Q325. A trauma patient loses >15% blood volume. What is the primary mechanism?
Answer: Volume failure
Explanation: Hypovolemic shock due to insufficient blood volume.
Q326. A patient has dilated pupils, dry skin, and tachycardia. Which toxin is likely?
Answer: Anticholinergic toxin
Explanation: Classic symptoms of anticholinergic poisoning (e.g., Atropine, Belladonna).
Q327. A patient is unresponsive and pulseless with asystole. What is the next step?
Answer: Start high-quality CPR
Explanation: Asystole is non-shockable; CPR and Epinephrine are indicated.
Q328. HIV positive, nonproductive cough, and CD4 count of 185 cells/mcl. Interpretation?
Answer: Patient is diagnosed with AIDS
Explanation: CD4 count below 200 cells/mcl meets clinical criteria for AIDS.
Q329. A person with superficial abrasions in a disaster. What triage tag?
Answer: Green
Explanation: “Walking wounded” with minor injuries; yellow = delayed, red = immediate, black = deceased.

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Stage-10

Q330. Subcutaneous fat is visible in a pressure ulcer, but no bone or muscle. What stage is this?
Answer: Stage III
Explanation: Full-thickness skin loss with visible fat; Stage IV involves bone or muscle.
Q331. A patient has chronic bronchitis. Which breathing exercise should the nurse include?
Answer: Use diaphragmatic breathing
Explanation: Strengthens diaphragm, decreases work of breathing, and improves oxygenation.
Q332. Major risk factor for developing hydronephrosis?
Answer: Ureteral obstruction
Explanation: Blockage prevents urine from draining, causing kidney swelling.
Q333. Treatment of choice for symptomatic gallstones?
Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation: Keyhole surgery causes less pain and faster recovery.
Q334. Life-threatening complication of portal hypertension?
Answer: Esophageal varices rupture
Explanation: Rupture causes massive internal bleeding.
Q335. Diagnostic test to confirm pancreatitis?
Answer: Serum lipase and amylase
Explanation: Elevated pancreatic enzymes indicate inflammation.
Q336. Initial management for bowel obstruction due to adhesions?
Answer: NG tube decompression and IV fluids
Explanation: Conservative management to relieve pressure and maintain hydration.
Q337. Major dietary recommendation for dumping syndrome?
Answer: Separate liquid intake from meals
Explanation: Slows stomach emptying into the small intestine.
Q338. Major complication of esophageal diverticula?
Answer: Esophageal perforation
Explanation: Trapped food may inflame and tear the esophagus.
Q339. Persistent chest burning, sour taste, worse lying down. Diagnosis?
Answer: Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
Explanation: Classic acid reflux symptoms.
Q340. Highest priority for a community nurse during a home birth?
Answer: Ensuring a clean and sterile environment
Explanation: Prevents maternal and neonatal infections.
Q341. Main goal of Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI)?
Answer: Ensure equitable access to vaccines
Explanation: Protects children from preventable diseases.
Q342. Household where parents make all decisions without child input has?
Answer: Rigid boundaries
Explanation: Strict rules, lack of flexibility, poor communication.
Q343. 14-year-old boy’s voice cracking is best explained as?
Answer: Normal puberty hormonal changes
Explanation: Testosterone enlarges larynx, thickening vocal cords.
Q344. Patient from rural Sindh with jaundice and blood transfusions likely has?
Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation: Commonly transmitted via unscreened transfusions in Pakistan.
Q345. Tetanus is transmitted through?
Answer: Entry of Clostridium tetani spores through a deep wound
Explanation: Spores enter via punctures, burns, or cuts.
Q346. 4-year-old with fever and sudden leg weakness. Critical diagnostic step?
Answer: Spinal tap (lumbar puncture)
Explanation: Diagnoses Polio or Meningitis via CSF analysis.
Q347. Treatment for ampicillin-resistant H. influenzae?
Answer: Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
Explanation: Third-generation cephalosporins overcome beta-lactamase.
Q348. Most effective strategy to control a Diphtheria outbreak?
Answer: Vaccinate all unvaccinated individuals and contacts
Explanation: Ring vaccination stops disease spread.
Q349. How to address a mother’s concern about vaccine safety?
Answer: Explain mild side effects but prevention of deadly infections
Explanation: Educates on risk vs. benefit to build confidence.
Q350. Cardinal movement where the baby’s head rotates?
Answer: Internal rotation
Explanation: Head aligns with widest part of maternal pelvis.
Q351. Lochia consists of?
Answer: Blood, mucus, and uterine tissue
Explanation: Vaginal discharge after childbirth.
Q352. Recommended delivery for previous classical C-section?
Answer: Repeat C-section
Explanation: High risk of uterine rupture with vaginal birth.
Q353. NOT a complication of childbirth?
Answer: Dyspnea
Explanation: Dyspnea is normal in pregnancy, not a delivery complication.
Q354. Laboring mother progresses 4cm→5cm with early decelerations. Plan?
Answer: No intervention; labor progressing normally
Explanation: Early decelerations are benign; dilation rate is acceptable.
Q355. Untreated Chlamydia in women can lead to?
Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Explanation: Infection spreads to uterus/fallopian tubes, causing PID.
Q356. When is TT2 vaccine given after TT1?
Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation: Ensures adequate immunity with minimum 4-week gap.
Q357. American Cancer Society recommendation for women aged 47?
Answer: Annual mammogram
Explanation: Early detection of breast cancer for ages 45–54.
Q358. Newborn action requiring further instruction?
Answer: Placing newborn prone to sleep
Explanation: Babies must sleep supine to reduce SIDS risk.
Q359. Dyspnea and bladder fullness in pregnancy caused by?
Answer: Progesterone
Explanation: Relaxes smooth muscles, increases respiratory drive.
Q360. Fat-soluble vitamins are?
Answer: A, D, E, K
Explanation: Stored in liver and fat; not excreted easily like water-soluble vitamins.

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